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1 - What are molecular chaperones?
Helper proteins
2 - Chaperones bind to which type of amino acid residues in the protein?
Hydrophobic
3 - Which of the following molecules bind to nascent polypeptides synthesized on the ribosomes?
Hsp72
4 - TriC is a _____________
chaperonin
5 - Heat-shock response was first observed in which organism?
Drosophila
6 - Rubisco is a ________________
protein
7 - Heptoses are __________
sugars
8 - Fructose is a _____________
ketose sugar
9 - The compounds which have same chemical reactivity but structures which are mirror images of each other are known as ____________
enantiomers
10 - Which of the following conventions is used to denote the presence of carbonyl group in left/right in the chemical structure of a carbohydrate?
L/ D
11 - Enzymes in a cell can distinguish between L and D forms of sugar.
TRUE
12 - Which types of bonds are found in sugars?
glycosidic
13 - Sucrose and lactose are _____________
disaccharides
14 - Enzyme lactase is found in ______________
plasma membrane
15 - Which type of carbohydrates lead to the formation of glycolipids and glycoproteins?
Oligosaccharides
16 - Which of the following polysaccharide is not entirely composed of glucose subunits?
Lactose
17 - All enzymes of the TCA cycle reside in the mitochondrial membrane.
FALSE
18 - Which of the following is also known as Krebs cycle?
TCA cycle
19 - How many reactions that occur in the TCA cycle transfer electrons from a substrate to an electron accepting enzyme?
4
20 - Which of the following is an important end product of disassembly of fatty acids?
Acetyl CoA
21 - Polysaccharides, fats and proteins break down into metabolites of __________________
TCA cycle
22 - Acetyl CoA is a _____________ carbon compound.
2
23 - In the TCA cycle, which of the following combines with Acetyl CoA to form a 6 carbon compound?
oxaloacetate
24 - The enzyme aconitase is responsible for ________________
isomerization
25 - For each molecule of glucose, how many times does the TCA cycle proceed?
2
26 - The electron clouds around the nucleus are of ___________
Spherical and Dumbbell shape
27 - Atoms or molecules having orbitals containing a single unpaired electron is known as ___________
Free radicals
28 - Which of the following is true based on the strength of the bond?
Covalent > Ionic > Vanderwaal > Hydrogen
29 - Which of the following is a non-polar molecule?
Ethylene
30 - The detailed tertiary structure of a protein is determined by the ___________ technique.
X-ray crystallography
31 - Which of the following is not true?
Steroids are found in the cell membranes of both plant and animal
32 - Which of the following bond is not present in DNA?
Disulphide bond
33 - Which of the following amino acids may or may not be protonated at neutral pH?
Histidine
34 - Heparin is an example of ___________
Glycosaminoglycan
35 - Which of the following contains tight junctions?
Chordates
36 - Which of the following is defined by the tight junctions?
Diffusion of drugs
37 - Which of the following protein is present in large amount in tight junctions?
Claudin
38 - The endocytosis happens in the apical surface and the exocytosis happens in the basolateral surface.
TRUE
39 - Leaky epithelium is present in bile ducts.
FALSE
40 - Which of the following is the first observed tight junction proteins?
Zonula occludens - 1
41 - Who discovered C3 cycle?
Melvin Calvin
42 - Identify the following compound.
RuBP
43 - Which of the following is an example of C3 plants?
Wheat
44 - C3 plants grown in cold climates.
TRUE
45 - Calvin cycle occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
FALSE
46 - What is the final product of the Calvin cycle?
Glucose
47 - How many ATP molecules are required to produce one molecule of glucose?
18
48 - Which of the following enzyme is used to fix CO2 through Calvin cycle?
Ribulose -1, 5- bisphosphate carboxylase
49 - Which redox-regulated protein controls the functioning of Calvin cycle?
CP12
50 - How many times should the Calvin cycle happen, in order to obtain one glucose molecule?
6
51 - Cancer is an inherited disease.
FALSE
52 - Normal cells can be converted to cancer cells by treatment with _____________
carcinogenic compounds
53 - The normal cells tend to remain in monolayer when their _____________ decreases.
growth rate
54 - When cancer cells are grown in culture they do not form monolayers.
TRUE
55 - The two important compounds of serum that are necessary for cell culture are __________________
insulin, epidermal growth factor
56 - The immortality exhibited by the cancer cells is due to presence of _____________________
telomerase
57 - The cancer cells are protected from ___________________
apoptosis
58 - Cancer cells depend on _________________ metabolic pathway.
G-proteins
59 - Microfilaments are mostly involved in _______________ processes.
motile
60 - For cellular transport, plant cells rely on microfilaments.
TRUE
61 - Microfilaments are composed of globular subunits of _____________
actin
62 - The identification of actin filaments in a cell can be done by using the protein ____________
myosin
63 - After incorporation into growing actin filaments, the associated ATP is _____________
hydrolyzed
64 - The faster growing end of the microfilament is the plus-end.
TRUE
65 - The phenomenon of "treadmilling" is observed in microfilaments under the __________ state.
steady
66 - The drug cytochalasin blocks the _____________
Plus-end of microfilaments
67 - Latrunculin blocks the ____________
actin monomers
68 - Which type of myosins move toward the minus-end of a microfilament?
myosin VI
69 - The head of the myosin binds the ___________
Actin filament
70 - Type II myosins are found primarily in __________
muscle cells
71 - Myosins VIII and _____ are present only in plant cells.
XI
72 - Myosin II filaments display a transient construction in ______________
nonmuscle cells
73 - Myosin I was discovered in the year _________
1973
74 - Golgi complex has a cisternae of diameter _________
0.5-1 μm
75 - Cis-Golgi network (CGN) is closer to the endoplasmic reticulum than the trans-Golgi network (TGN).
TRUE
76 - Which of the following parts of Golgi complex directs the proteins to their final intracellular destinations?
trans-Golgi network
77 - Which protein families do not mechanically support the Golgi complex?
Keratin
78 - Newly synthesized membrane proteins enter the cis face of the Golgi complex and leave from the trans face.
TRUE
79 - Which of the following is located at the trans end of the Golgi stack?
sialyl-transferase
80 - Which of the following is not completely synthesized in the Golgi complex of a cell?
N-linked oligosaccharides
81 - How many models of movement of materials through the Golgi complex exist?
2
82 - What is responsible for the transport of materials from the cis cisternae to the trans cisternae of the Golgi complex?
transport vesicles
83 - While moving from cis cisternae to the trans cisternae, which molecule does not leave the cisternal lumen?
procollagen
84 - The "S" in the 80S ribosomes stands for _______________
Svedberg’s units
85 - Which of the following are precursors for mRNAs?
hnRNA
86 - Which of the following has the smallest half life?
hnRNA
87 - All mRNA precursors are synthesized by ___________________
RNA polymerase II
88 - Which of the following gene encodes for the white of a chicken egg?
ovalbumin
89 - TFIID is a ___________
protein complex
90 - Which enzyme unwinds the DNA?
helicase
91 - More than one RNA polymerase can attach to the promoter site.
TRUE
92 - The RNA polymerase engaged in transcription is ____________
phosphorylated
93 - Messenger RNAs are found in the ________________
cytoplasm
94 - Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications, not present in prokaryotic mRNAs.
TRUE
95 - Genes with intervening (non-coding) sequences are called ___________________
split genes
96 - Which of the following prevents the digestion of mRNA by exonucleases?
methyl-guanosine cap
97 - In a mammalian cell, which is the most abundant type of RNA?
rRNA
98 - The human genome consists of _____ rDNA.
2
99 - Aggregated clusters of rDNA in a cell are called _______________
nucleoli
100 - Which of the following are ideal subjects for the study of rRNA synthesis and processing?
oocytes
101 - Nontranscribed spacer is not transcribed.
TRUE
102 - How many types of distinct ribosomal RNAs are present in eukaryotic ribosomes?
4
103 - How many post-translational modifications occur in the pre-rRNA (primary transcript)?
2
104 - Which of the following is a pre-rRNA?
45S
105 - The processing of pre-rRNA is done using __________
snoRNA
106 - 5S rRNA is present only in eukaryotes.
FALSE
107 - Which among the following have the largest number of tRNA genes?
humans
108 - Transfer RNAs (tRNA) are transcribed by _________________
tDNA
109 - Ribonuclease P is involve in the processing of ___________________
pre-tRNA
110 - Translation is the process of _____________________
protein synthesis
111 - Transfer RNAs decode the information present in __________________
mRNA
112 - Transfer RNA linked to an amino acid is called _____________
aa-tRNA
113 - When was the first base sequence of a transfer RNA reported?
1965
114 - The length of tRNA molecules is ________________ nucleotides.
73-93
115 - All mature tRNAs have the sequence CCA at their 3’ end.
TRUE
116 - The part of tRNA that interacts with the codon of mRNA is termed as __________
Anticodon
117 - The "wobble hypothesis" was proposed by ______________________
Francis Crick
118 - The enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is responsible for linking ____________________________
amino acid to tRNA
119 - Degradation of cellular unwanted proteins is carried out in _________
Proteasomes
120 - How many β-subunits are there in proteasomes?
2
121 - Proteins that terminate in arginine are short-lived.
TRUE
122 - "Degron" is a __________
amino acid sequence
123 - Ubiquitin is a ___________________
protein
124 - A number of ubiquitin molecules must be attached to ensure enzymatic degradation of a polypeptide.
TRUE
125 - For enzymatic degradation, Ubiquitin is transferred from the carrier protein to _______________ residue.
lysine
126 - Which part of the proteasome recognizes a polyubiquitinated protein?
beta-subunit
127 - In the proteasome, the unfolded protein is threaded through narrow opening in the ring of ___________________
alpha-subunit
128 - One of the main functions of plasma membranes is to enclose the contents of _____________
cell
129 - Cytosol is the same as cytoplasm.
FALSE
130 - Which of the following is allowed in context with a plasma membrane?
Transportation
131 - Which type of molecules are involved in responding to external signals received by the cell?
Receptors
132 - The specific molecules that bind to receptors are _____________
Ligands
133 - Energy transduction is the underlying process of which of the following?
Photosynthesis
134 - The first insights into the chemical nature of plasma membranes date back to __________
1890
135 - Which material was used by Overton in his experiments to conclude the lipid nature of plasma membrane?
plant root hair
136 - The fluid mosaic model was proposed in the year __________
1972
137 - According to the fluid mosaic model, the membrane is _____________
fluid-like
138 - Which of the following plants undergo CAM photosynthesis?
Cactus
139 - The CAM pathway starts at daytime.
FALSE
140 - Where is the malate stored in CAM plants?
Vacuoles
141 - How many aquatic plant genera can undergo CAM photosynthesis?
4
142 - The CAM plants undergo daytime acidification and nighttime deacidification.
FALSE
143 - Which enzyme is used in converting bicarbonate ion to oxaloacetate?
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
144 - Which enzyme is used to convert oxaloacetate to malate?
Malate dehydrogenase
145 - Which of the following is a facultative CAM plant?
Common ice plant
146 - A protein coat of diameter ________ is present on the transport vesicles.
0.5-1 μm
147 - Which molecule activates the formation of a transport vesicle?
G-protein
148 - COPII-coated vesicles move the materials from ____________ to ____________
ER, Golgi complex
149 - COPI-coated vesicles move the materials in __________________ direction.
retrograde
150 - Glycosyltransferases are selected by CopII-coat proteins.
TRUE
151 - Sar1 is a _______
G-protein
152 - The protein coated vesicle must release its components into the Cytosol before fusing with the target site.
TRUE
153 - ARF1 is a _______ binding protein.
GTP
154 - Retrieval signals, present on the C-terminus of ER resident proteins are captured by the receptors present on __________________
COPI-coated vesicles
155 - Clathrin present on the clathrin-coated vesicles is a ______________
protein
156 - GTP-bound ‘Rabs’ (G-proteins) associated with membranes by a __________ anchor.
lipid
157 - Which state of the ‘Rabs’ is the active state?
GTP-bound
158 - t-SNAREs are present on the _____________________
target compartment
159 - Synaptobrevin is a ______________
v-SNARE
160 - Which of the following are the targets of bacterial toxins botulism and tetanus?
SNAREs
161 - Endocytosis and phagocytosis refer to the same process.
FALSE
162 - Which of the following is a type of endocytosis?
All of the mentioned
163 - The process in which cell uptakes extracellular material bound to cell surface receptors is known as __________________
receptor-mediated endocytosis
164 - Receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME) leads to the formation of ___________ coated pits.
clathrin
165 - A molecule of clathrin has a ______________ structure.
triskelion
166 - Which adaptor molecule operate in clathrin-mediated endocytosis?
AP2
167 - Dynamin is a _____________________
accessory protein
168 - Receptor down regulation leads to a decrease in the sensitivity of the cell towards further stimulation.
TRUE
169 - Following internalization, vesicle-bound materials are transported to _________________
endosomes
170 - Late endosomes are located near the _____________
nucleus
171 - Transformation from an early to a late endosome is characterized by a decrease in ______________
pH
172 - Receptors dissociate from their bound ligands as a result of ________________
high H+ concentration
173 - Where do the materials ingested by endocytosis, reach after travelling through the late endosome?
lysosome
174 - ‘Niemann-Pick type C disease’ is caused due to deficiency of a specific ________________
protein
175 - Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits the fusion of its phagosome with _________________ following phagocytosis.
lysosome
176 - When was the link between enzymes and inherited disease first elucidated?
1908
177 - Which organism was used for experiments that led to "one gene - one enzyme" hypothesis?
Neurospora
178 - Which proteolytic enzyme was used in the experiments aimed at elucidating the mutation that causes sickle cell anemia?
trypsin
179 - In patients of sickle cell anemia, the hemoglobin contains a substitution for ____________________
glutamic acid
180 - What is the intermediate between a gene and its polypeptide?
mRNA
181 - Transcription is the synthesis of ______________________
RNA
182 - After transcribing into RNA, the gene is spliced out of the genome.
FALSE
183 - RNA is a mobile nucleic acid.
TRUE
184 - Which of the following play a role in structural support?
rRNA
185 - Which of the following enzymes are used in the process of transcription?
RNA polymerases
186 - Promoter is a ____________________
site on DNA
187 - Which of the two strands of DNA will be transcribed is determined by the _______________
Promoter sequence
188 - The transcription factors assist the RNA polymerase in locating ________________
promoter
189 - Which enzyme makes the transcription, an essentially irreversible process?
pyrophosphatase
190 - In bacteria, binding of _________ factor to the RNA polymerase increases its affinity for promoter sites in the DNA.
sigma
191 - Who first discovered chloroplast?
Konstantin Mereschkowski
192 - The number of chloroplasts found in Arabidopsis thaliana is _____________
150
193 - The sunlight is captured by the membrane of thylakoids.
TRUE
194 - Which pigment is responsible for the process of sunlight?
Chlorophyll a
195 - Which pigment constitutes majorly in absorbing sunlight for photosynthesis?
Chlorophyll b
196 - Which of the following organisms has photosynthetic pigments in it?
Spirulina
197 - What is the chemical formula of chlorophyll a?
C55H72MgN4O5
198 - Chloroplast divide by binary fission.
TRUE
199 - What disease is caused by the dysfunction of chloroplast?
Leaf variegation
200 - Transverse diffusion (flip-flop) is the movement of _____________
phospholipid
201 - The mobility of integral proteins can be measured by physical state of the ______________
membrane phospholipids
202 - Two cells can be operated in such a way that leads to a common continuous plasma membrane of both.
TRUE
203 - Which of the following can not be used to mediate the fusion of plasma membranes of two different cells?
emulsifier
204 - FRAP can be used to analyze living cells.
TRUE
205 - The erythrocyte has a _________________ shape.
bi-concave
206 - Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by mutations in a membrane protein?
Hemolytic anemia
207 - Glycophorin is involved in which of the following disease?
malaria
208 - How many filamentous structures together comprise the cytoskeleton?
3
209 - Cytoskeletal filaments are polymers of ________________
proteins
210 - Microtubules are formed of the protein ____________
tubulin
211 - Microfilaments are composed of the protein ____________
actin
212 - Microtubules of a dividing cell form the mitotic spindle.
TRUE
213 - The cytoskeleton framework plays a role in positioning of the cell organelles.
TRUE
214 - Cilia and flagella are ________________
microtubules
215 - Which of the following are found only in animal cells?
intermediate filaments
216 - Which of the following is found in the nucleus of animal cells?
intermediate filaments
217 - The identity and chemical properties of an atom are determined by ____________
number of protons
218 - Isotopes have the same number of protons.
TRUE
219 - Which of the following is radioactive?
tritium
220 - The half life of a radioisotope is _____________
time taken for half the decay
221 - Which of the following emitted particles consists of two protons?
alpha
222 - A beta particle is equivalent to an electron.
TRUE
223 - Liquid scintillation spectrometry is a method of detecting ________________________
β-emitters
224 - Where in a eukaryotic cell, can a microtubule NOT be found?
nucleus
225 - Which type of macromolecules make up the wall of microtubules?
globular proteins
226 - How many protofilaments are present in a single mammalian microtubule?
13
227 - All the protofilaments of a microtubule have the same _____________
polarity
228 - Alpha-tubulin subunits terminate the plus end of the microtubule.
FALSE
229 - The microtubule-binding activity of MAPs is controlled by ______________
phosphorylation
230 - Neurofibrillary tangles, found in the brain cells of persons with neurodegenerative disorders consists of _______________
microtubule-associated proteins
231 - The drug colchicine promotes microtubule _____________
disassembly
232 - Movement of materials in an axon are mediated through ________________ that serve as cytoskeletal tracks.
microtubules
233 - Which motor protein superfamily does not move along the microtubules?
Myosin
234 - Smallest microtubular motor proteins are __________________
kinesin
235 - Kinesins are plus end-directed microtubular proteins.
TRUE
236 - In an axon, microtubules are oriented with their __________________ facing the cell body.
minus end
237 - Which protein moves towards the minus end of the microtubule track?
Ncd
238 - Which of the following family of kinesins is incapable of movement along the microtubules?
kinesin-13
239 - Which monomers compose the strands of nucleic acids?
Nucleotides
240 - What are the types of nucleic acids are found in living organisms?
deoxyribonucleic acid & ribonucleic acid
241 - How many types of nucleotides are present in DNA?
4
242 - Purines and pyrimidines are different molecules.
TRUE
243 - Ribozymes are _____________
enzymes
244 - ATP and GTP are __________
nucleotides
245 - Which of the following is covalently attached to a lipid molecule in cell membrane?
Lipid-anchored protein
246 - Integral proteins are also known as ____________
Transmembrane proteins
247 - The concept of transmembrane proteins was obtained from the results of which technique?
Freeze-fracture replication
248 - Transmembrane domain of a transmembrane protein is present as _______________
Alpha-helix
249 - Hydropathy plot helps to _______________
All of the mentioned
250 - The channel in a membrane protein by which an ion or molecule can be transported in and out of the cell membrane is known as ___________
Permeation pathway
251 - Greater degree of unsaturation in fatty acids of cell membrane _________
Lowers the transition temperature
252 - GPI- anchored proteins show particular affinity towards ________
Lipid rafts
253 - FRAP is a technique to detect ___________
Membrane proteins
254 - Antibody -coated gold particles are used in _______________
SPT
255 - Lipids cannot dissolve in _____________
water
256 - Which types of bonds are found in fats?
ester
257 - How many carboxyl groups are present in fatty acids?
1
258 - Fatty acids that lack double bonds are call saturated.
TRUE
259 - Which type of bonds present in vegetable fats account for their liquid state?
Double bonds
260 - Margarine is formed using unsaturated vegetable fats by _________________
hydrogenation
261 - Fats contain more chemical energy than carbohydrates.
TRUE
262 - In most animals, fats are stored in special cells called _____________
adipocytes
263 - Which of the following steroids is a precursor of hormones such as testosterone, progesterone and estrogen?
Cholesterol
264 - What is the major difference between a fat (triacylglycerol) and a phospholipid (diacylglycerol)?
Fatty acid chain
265 - Who developed the chemical techniques to synthesize polynucleotides?
H. Gobind Khorana
266 - Which of the following enzymes in bacteria are responsible for restricting the growth of viruses?
restriction endonuclease
267 - EcoR1 exhibits a two-fold rotational symmetry.
TRUE
268 - Which enzyme is used to join together two different types of DNA molecules?
ligase
269 - The first recombinant DNA molecule was synthesized in the year ______________
1972
270 - Which observation was made by Avery, Macleod, and McCarty?
DNA can be taken up from medium
271 - Recombinant plasmids are added to a bacterial culture that has been pretreated with _________________ ions.
calcium
272 - Which protein is used for the fluorescent labeling of cytoskeleton elements of the cell?
green fluorescent protein
273 - In fluorescence speckle microscopy, cytoskeletal filaments are uniformly labeled.
FALSE
274 - Variants of a protein are called __________
isoforms
275 - Which types of lasers are used in optical tweezers?
Laser beams
276 - In total internal reflection microscopy (TIRF), thin planes can be focused
TRUE
277 - Atomic force microscopy uses _____________
Nanosized tip
278 - Which of the following are the most extensible filaments?
intermediate filaments
279 - Which technique has been used to study the dynamic nature of microtubules?
FRAP
280 - Which technology can be used to monitor thousands of genes in a single experiment?
DNA microarrays
281 - How many types of transcription factors assist in transcription-level control?
2
282 - Sequence-specific transcription factors can act as transcriptional activators or repressors.
TRUE
283 - What percent of genes encode transcription factors?
15-20
284 - Which cells are pluripotent?
embryonic stem cells
285 - Importance of transcription factors in embryonic stem cells was demonstrated in ______________
2006
286 - In cellular reprogramming, which of the following is removed during chromatin reorganization?
epigenetic marks
287 - How many domains are present in a transcription factor?
2
288 - Motifs are related structures present on the transcription factors constituting the _________________ domain.
DNA-binding
289 - In the leucine-zipper motif, leucine occurs after every ____ amino acids.
6
290 - One of the key-enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis is ______________
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
291 - Core promoter is the site that stretches between _______________
TATA box and start site
292 - CAAT and GC box are ________________
promoter sequences
293 - Which of the following is a transcription factor widely employed in eukaryotic gene expression?
NF1
294 - TATA box regulates the frequency with which the gene is transcribed.
FALSE
295 - The Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused due the lack of functional ____________ protein.
WASP
296 - Fluorescently labeled _________ can reveal the attachment sites of fibroblasts on substratum.
vinculin
297 - Which of the following are used to study cell locomotion in fish?
keratocytes
298 - Advancing edge of the lamellipodium is filled with actin.
TRUE
299 - When was the first experimental evidence provided for axonal outgrowth and motility?
1907
300 - Which of the following acts as an attractant for axons?
netrin
301 - Changes in cell shape occur due to changes in the orientation of cytoskeletal elements.
TRUE
302 - Crawling of cells over a substratum is an example of _________________
nonmuscle motility
303 - The Protein-tyrosine kinases phosphorylate the ______________ residues.
tyrosine
304 - How many types of protein-tyrosine kinases are there?
2
305 - The cytoplasmic protein-tyrosine kinases are activated indirectly by the extracellular signals.
TRUE
306 - Bringing 2 kinase domains in close contact allows for ___________________
trans-autophosphorylation
307 - When the levels of glucose drop, alpha-cells in the pancreas secrete ____________________
glucagon
308 - Which cells release insulin when glucose levels elevate in the body?
beta cells
309 - Which of the following synthesis is decreased (or stopped) when the blood glucose levels are high?
gluconeogenesis
310 - Diabetes Mellitus is caused by defects in insulin signaling.
TRUE
311 - Diabetes Mellitus type II is caused due __________________________
insulin resistance
312 - How many subunits does the Ras protein contain?
1
313 - The Etr1 gene in plants encodes for ___________________
ethylene gas receptor
314 - Which technique was used to study the secretory pathway in acinar cells of the pancreas for the first time?
Autoradiography
315 - Which type of molecules are used for labeling the cellular entities in the autoradiography technique?
Radioisotopes
316 - "Pulse-chase" is an experiment related to radioactivity.
TRUE
317 - Green fluorescent protein (GFP) is observed from which of the following organism?
Jellyfish
318 - GFP joined at the end of a protein can interfere in its synthesis.
FALSE
319 - After the synthesis of proteins in endoplasmic reticulum, where do they reach before being secreted from the cell?
Golgi complex
320 - Which of the following can be used as a temperature-sensitive mutant to study the endomembrane system?
Vesicular Stomatitis Virus
321 - Subcellular fragmentation is a technique to study the endomembrane system, based on _____________ of the cells.
homogenization
322 - The microsomal content of a ruptured cell represents how many organelles?
2
323 - Which of the following technique was used to study the function of ribosomes and contrast it with the function of ER membrane?
Cell-free systems
324 - A mutant organism or cell encodes normal proteins that can be used for studying the endomembrane system.
FALSE
325 - RNAi phenomenon inhibits the synthesis of which biomolecules?
Proteins
326 - The scanning electron microscope is used to examine _____________
cell surfaces
327 - In the preparation of samples for SEM, the specimens are air-dried by a process of critical-point drying.
TRUE
328 - At the critical drying point, there is no surface tension between ________________
gas and liquid
329 - In SEM, the image is formed by the electrons that _________________
reflect back
330 - The AFM uses a _______________ to scan the surface of a molecule.
Nanosized tip
331 - Which of the following component of the light microscope illuminates the specimen by gathering diffuse rays from the light microscope?
condenser lens
332 - Which of the following magnification of the ocular will occupy maximum retinal surface?
50X
333 - Ocular lens forms a virtual image.
TRUE
334 - The resolution attained by a microscope is limited by _____________________
diffraction
335 - 527 nanometers is the wavelength of ______________ light.
green
336 - The numerical aperture is constant for each lens.
TRUE
337 - The maximum possible numerical aperture of 1.5 is for a ______________ lens.
oil immersion
338 - The Feulgen stain is used for staining ____________________
chromosomes
339 - Which of the following is used for the preparation of a section specimen?
fixative
340 - A fixative _______________ the macromolecular components of a cell.
immobilizes
341 - Which of the following can not be used as a fixative?
vitamin B12
342 - Slides containing adherent paraffin sections are immersed in __________________
toluene
343 - Unstained specimens can be visualized using ________________
phase-contrast microscope
344 - Which of the following gives a three dimensional quality of the image?
Differential interference contrast
345 - Rhodamine is a ___________________
fluorochrome
346 - Who first discovered peroxisomes?
Christian de Duve
347 - What is the diameter of peroxisomes?
0.1 - 1.0 µm
348 - What is the major role of peroxisomes in our body?
Breakdown of Hydrogen Peroxide
349 - Which cells in our body contains abundant peroxisomes?
Liver cells
350 - What enzyme is used to detoxify alcohol in our body?
Peroxidase
351 - Which of the following enzyme produced by peroxisomes are present in plant cell, but absent in human cell?
Uric acid oxidase
352 - Among which of the following Peroxisomes are absent?
Bacillus subtilis
353 - What cell organelle assists in the oxidation of fatty acids along with peroxisomes?
Mitochondria
354 - Which genetic disorder is associated with dysfunction of peroxisomes?
Zellweger Syndrome
355 - Which organelle is used in the production of white matter in the nervous system?
Peroxisomes
356 - Intermediate filaments are branched structures.
FALSE
357 - Intermediate filaments are _________________
heterogenous
358 - How many types of polypeptides are found in intermediate filaments?
5
359 - The type V intermediate filaments are called ___________
lamins
360 - Plectins are _____________
proteins
361 - Unlike other cytoskeletal elements, in the assembly of intermediate filaments there is no requirement of ______________
ATP/ GDP
362 - Intermediate filaments lack polarity.
TRUE
363 - Intermediate filaments tend to be less sensitive to __________________
chemicals
364 - Which is a type of intermediate filament found in epithelial cells?
keratin
365 - Neurofilaments are the type _____ intermediate filaments.
IV
366 - Absence of the intermediate filament desmin, has a negative impact on _______________
muscle cells
367 - Vimentin is a ___________
intermediate filament
368 - ‘Epidermolysis bullosa simplex’ is caused by the deficiency of ____________ polypeptide.
keratin
369 - Aggregation of neurofilaments leads to ____________
neurodegenerative disorders
370 - The following diseases is caused by viruses ____________
Both Influenza and Measles
371 - Which of the following is not true for TMV Virus?
It contains viral coat containing copies of multiple proteins
372 - Which of the following is the largest bacteriophage?
T4 bacteriophage
373 - The integrated genetic material of a virus is called __________________
Provirus
374 - Virus like particles (VLP) are ____________
Immunogenic but not infectious
375 - Which of the following viruses have DNA as its genetic material?
Cauliflower Mosaic Virus
376 - HIV antagonizes the ___________ cell in human body.
Helper T cell
377 - Which of the following has the largest DNA sequence?
Megavirus chilensis
378 - Which of the following enables a Dengue virus to affect human beings?
Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
379 - Viruses can be cultivated in_________________
All of the mentioned
380 - The capsomeres contain small protein subunits known as ___________________
Protomeres
381 - Which of the following viruses is found in saliva?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV virus)
382 - How many structural and non-structural proteins are there in the dengue virus?
3 ; 7
383 - Cancer is monoclonal.
TRUE
384 - The most common solid tumors - breast, colon etc. arise in _____________ cells.
epithelial
385 - Leukemias usually arise from _________
blood-forming tissues
386 - The expression of telomerase on cancer cells can be considered an epigenetic change.
TRUE
387 - Which of the following is a test for detecting precancerous cells?
Pap smear
388 - Oncogenes promote the growth of cancer cells.
TRUE
389 - Proto-oncogenes are possessed by the ______________________
Cells themselves
390 - The oncogenes act __________________
dominantly
391 - The first tumor-suppressor gene to be studied is associated with ______________________
retinoblastoma
392 - When was the genetic basis of retinoblastoma first explained?
1971
393 - For the development of cancer, which of the following is the most influential component of the genome?
TP53
394 - p53 is a _________
transcription factor
395 - p53 is capable of binding to which family of proteins?
Bcl-2
396 - According to the "instructive model" the antigen instructs lymphocytes to produce antibodies.
TRUE
397 - Who proposed the clonal selection theory?
Frank MacFarlane Burnet
398 - B-cells arise from ______________________
progenitor cells
399 - Antigens that do not require the involvement of T-cells for the activation of B-cells are _____________________
thymus-independent
400 - Some of the activated B-cells lead to the formation of short-lived ______________________
plasma cells
401 - Plasma cells possess extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
FALSE
402 - B-lymphocytes that do not differentiate into plasma cells are called _______________________
Memory B cells
403 - In case of acquired immune system, a secondary immune response is generated by the ______________
memory B-cells
404 - For the body to develop immunologic tolerance, production of ____________________ must be prevented.
autoantibodies
405 - Who discovered the vaccination against smallpox?
Edward Jenner
406 - A harmless version of tetanus toxin is called _________________
toxoid
407 - Which of the following serves as antigen receptors?
antibodies
408 - The heavy and light chains of the antibodies are linked to one another by ____________________
disulfide bonds
409 - Which is the first antibody secreted by B cells following stimulation by an antigen?
IgM
410 - Which antibody is produced at high levels in response to parasitic functions?
IgE
411 - Glycolysis takes place in _____
Cytosol
412 - The first stable compound of Kreb’s cycle is _____________
Citrate
413 - How many ATP molecules are produced per glucose molecules in eukaryotic Glycolysis?
2 ATP
414 - How many ATP molecules are produced per Krebs’ Cycle in eukaryotes?
24 ATP
415 - After glycolysis, which of the following is transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the matrix?
Pyruvate
416 - The TCA cycle produces ____________
6 NADH
417 - The TCA cycle produces _____________
2 FADH2
418 - The TCA cycle produces ___________
2 GTPs
419 - In the electron transport chain, each pair of electron transferred from NADH to oxygen releases sufficient energy to produce __________
3 ATPs
420 - In the electron transport chain, each pair of electron donated by FADH2 releases sufficient energy to produce __________
2 ATPs
421 - Total number of ATPs formed by oxidation of one glucose molecule is ___________
36 ATPs
422 - Which of the following is not involved in electron chain transport system?
All of them are involved
423 - NADH and FADH2 is associated with respectively ____________
Complexes I and complex II
424 - Mutations in the DNA may be passed to the next generation.
TRUE
425 - How many pathways of nucleotide excision repair exist?
2
426 - Which repair system operates to remove the altered bases generated by reactive chemicals present in the diet?
Base excision repair
427 - Which repair system operates to repair DNA strands that are actively transcribed?
Nucleotide excision repair
428 - A mismatched base pair can cause ________________ in the double helix.
change in geometry
429 - Which of the following does not introduce double-strand breaks in the DNA?
Inherited mutations
430 - The NHEJ pathway is used to rectify __________________ in the DNA.
double-strand breaks
431 - Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by ______________________
UV radiations
432 - How many types of skin cancers can develop by overexposure to ultraviolet rays?
3
433 - Which term is used to refer to a period between the cell divisions?
Interphase
434 - There are ______ major phases in a cell cycle.
2
435 - Meiosis produces cells that have half the genetic content as their parent cells.
TRUE
436 - Asynchronous cultures are the ones whose cells are _______________________
randomly distributed through the cell cycle
437 - DNA replication can be monitored by incorporation of ______________________
thymidine
438 - DNA replication occurs during _________________ of the cell cycle.
S phase
439 - Which of the following cells do not lack the ability to divide?
skin cells
440 - Which of the following cells do not usually divide but can be induced to divide?
liver cells
441 - Which of the following cells are capable of asymmetric cell division?
Stem cells
442 - Cells that have stopped dividing and are arrested in a state preceding that of DNA synthesis, are said to be in the__________
G0 phase
443 - When were the experiments in an effort to understand cell cycle regulation first conducted?
1970s
444 - What will happen if a G2 phase cell is fused with an M phase cell?
premature chromosome compaction
445 - The entry of a cell into M phase is initiated by _________________
maturation promoting factor
446 - The regulatory subunit of maturation-promoting factor (MPF) is called _______________
cyclin
447 - Cyclin binding leads to a change in the _________________ of kinase.
conformation
448 - Trypsin is used for dissociating the tissue into single cells.
TRUE
449 - In the secondary culture, cells are obtained from _______________________
primary culture
450 - EDTA binds the ______________ ions.
calcium
451 - HeLa cells are a cell line.
TRUE
452 - Under favorable conditions, the protoplasts can grow into a ____________________
callus culture
453 - The process of dedifferentiation in cell culture can give rise to ________________________
induced-pluripotent stem cells
454 - When was it first discovered that RNA molecules are capable of catalyzing chemical reactions?
1982
455 - The studies that led to discovery of posttranscriptional gene silencing phenomena were performed on ____________
petunia
456 - The phenomenon of RNA interference was discovered using the organism ___________________
C. elegans
457 - RNA interference is evolved as a genetic immune system.
TRUE
458 - Dicer converts double-stranded RNAs into _______________
siRNA
459 - Which family of proteins plays a key role in gene silencing pathways?
Argonaute
460 - RNA interference is not observed in vertebrates.
FALSE
461 - What takes place when siRNAs are used in place of dsRNA in mammalian cells?
gene knock-down
462 - The first RNAi therapeutics was aimed at treating ______________________
macular degeneration
463 - Which of the following RNAs are highly conserved?
let-7
464 - Drosha is an ___________________
enzyme
465 - Which type of RNAs suppress the movement of transposons in the germline?
piRNAs
466 - PIWI proteins have been best studied in _________________
fruit flies
467 - What is not required in the innate immune responses?
previous contact
468 - Which of the following group of pathogens always reside intracellularly in the host?
virus
469 - The phagocytes can recognize pathogens by means of _____________________
pattern recognition receptors
470 - Which of the following proteins in fruit fly play the major function of dorsoventral polarity of the fly embryo?
Toll
471 - Which of the following drug acts by stimulating toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
Aldara
472 - Innate immune responses are accompanied by inflammation.
TRUE
473 - Which of the following is an antimicrobial peptide synthesized by lymphocytes?
defensins
474 - Which type of immune cells are responsible for eradicating intracellular pathogens?
natural killer cells
475 - Which type of interferons is associated with an antiviral innate response?
Type I
476 - Adaptive immune responses are more specific that innate immune responses.
TRUE
477 - Humoral immunity is mediated by ______________
lymphocytes
478 - B and T lymphocytes arise from _____________
hematopoietic stem cells
479 - A rare disease congenital agammaglobulinemia is caused due to abnormality in __________________
humoral antibody
480 - In FISH technology, which fluorescence confirms a BCR/ABL translocation?
Yellow signal
481 - The nucleosome is composed of how many histone proteins?
9
482 - An example of extensively polyploid organism is _________
Xenopus laevis
483 - Hybrid vigour is referred to __________
superior phenotype of a hybrid
484 - Application of non-ionizing ultraviolet radiation causes _________
formation of pyrimidine dimers
485 - During translation of proteins, the aminoacyl tRNA arrives at ____________
Ribosomal A site
486 - Which of the following is a consensus sequence?
All of the mentioned
487 - Which of the following is the start codon in protein translation?
AUG
488 - Which of the following statements is correct according to Chargaff’s rules?
In double-stranded DNA, the amount of G equals the amount of C
489 - The synthesis of polypeptide can be divided into ______ distinct activities.
3
490 - Which of the following moves in consecutive blocks of three nucleotides?
ribosome
491 - Which of the following is an initiation codon?
AUG
492 - Shine-Dalgarno sequence is present in the ____________________
mRNA
493 - Initiation factors are ______________________
soluble proteins
494 - The first amino acid incorporated at the N-terminus of polypeptide is ___________________
methionine
495 - What drives the conformational change in the ribosome?
GTP hydrolysis
496 - Which of the following is released when a Hydrogen atom loses an electron?
Proton
497 - Which of the following is an example of amphoteric molecule?
Water
498 - Acids that lose a proton easily are weak acids.
FALSE
499 - What is the full form of pH?
Potential Hydrogen
500 - What is the concentration of pure water?
55.51 M
501 - In presence of an acid, amino group can be ____________
Protonated
502 - Buffers react with _______________ ions.
hydrogen, hydroxyl
503 - Buffers usually contain ________________ with its conjugate ____________
weak acid, base
504 - Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions buffer which of the following?
Blood
505 - The membranes of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) are continuous.
TRUE
506 - Which of the following biomolecules are not synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum?
Nucleic acids
507 - All the cells contain the same ratio of rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
FALSE
508 - Detoxification of organic compounds like barbiturates and ethanol in the liver is carried out by ________________
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
509 - Which enzymes are responsible for detoxification of organic compounds carried out by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Oxygenases
510 - Sarcoplasmic reticulum is found in ________________
muscle cells
511 - The signal sequence that determines whether a protein will be synthesized on a free ribosome or ribosome attached to endoplasmic reticulum is located at _______
N-terminal
512 - In the image below, endoplasmic reticulum is depicted by ________
a
513 - In yeast cells, protein transport across the endoplasmic reticulum membrane occurs __________
post-translationally
514 - In mammalian cells, the signal recognition particle (SRP) consists of ____ distinct polypeptides and one small RNA molecule.
6
515 - Translocon is a ____________
protein channel
516 - Which of the following enzyme present in the rough endoplasmic reticulum removes the signal sequence from nascent polypeptides?
signal peptidase
517 - The cysteine residues present in the reduced form in peptides that enter the endoplasmic reticulum lumen are converted into ____________ when they leave the compartment.
disulfide bonds
518 - Hydrophobic transmembrane segments of which proteins are not synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum?
integral membrane proteins
519 - Glycolipids are synthesized in the ER and ____________
Golgi complex
520 - Which of the following immunoglobulin is naturally given to the fetus?
IgG
521 - In an immunoglobulin, the heavy chains and the light chains are held together by ____________
Disulphide bond
522 - What ions is required for the function of cadherins?
Ca2+
523 - Cadherins are 720-750 amino acids long.
TRUE
524 - Which of the following has abundant protocadherins?
Nervous system
525 - What is epithelial mesenchymal transistion?
Loss of adhesion and gain of migration
526 - Where is the CDH3 gene expressed?
Placenta
527 - Which of the following is caused by cadherin disorder?
Usher syndrome
528 - Lactose can be a nutrient source for bacteria, it is a _____________________
disaccharide
529 - The first step in catabolism of lactose by the bacteria is ________________ of a linkage bond.
hydrolysis
530 - Under minimal conditions, the cell has fewer than 5 copies of enzyme β-galactosidase.
TRUE
531 - Enzymes of __________________________ are clustered together in a bacterial operon.
metabolic pathway
532 - When was the operation mechanism of a bacterial operon first elucidated?
1961
533 - In a bacterial operon, which is located downstream of the structural genes?
regulatory gene
534 - The structural genes in an operon lie adjacent to one another.
TRUE
535 - Which is a DNA-binding protein?
repressor
536 - The repressor protein is encoded by _________________
regulatory gene
537 - The capability of the repressor to bind the operator depends upon _____________
conformation
538 - The lac operon consists of ____ structural genes.
3
539 - Which of the following acts as an inducer in the lac operon?
lactose
540 - The lac operon is under positive control, a phenomenon called _________________
glucose-effect
541 - Which of the following acts as a co-repressor in tryptophan operon?
tryptophan
542 - In bacteria, mRNAs bound to small metabolites are called ______________
riboswitches
543 - Tobacco Mosaic Virus consists of one long molecule of ______________
RNA
544 - TMV particles are not capable of self-assembly.
FALSE
545 - Ribosomes consist of RNA and _____________
proteins
546 - The large (50S) ribosomal subunit of bacteria contains _______ molecules of RNA.
2
547 - Which protein of the smaller subunit of bacterial ribosome was found to have a function in ribososme assembly?
S16
548 - Eukaryotic subunits are not capable of self-assembly.
TRUE
549 - The term mitosis was coined in ____________
1882
550 - Mitosis is the process of segregation of DNA molecules into 2 cells.
TRUE
551 - Cytokinesis is the process of division of two daughter cells by the partitioning of _________________
Cytoplasm
552 - During mitosis, the cell becomes less responsive to external stimuli.
TRUE
553 - How many phases of mitosis are there?
5
554 - Cytoskeleton is disassembled in which of the following phase?
Prophase
555 - Centromeres split during the __________________
anaphase
556 - Which is the last phase in mitosis just before the beginning of cytokinesis?
telophase
557 - Condensin is a ___________________
multiprotein complex
558 - Chromosome compaction at prophase requires ______________________
Topoisomerase II
559 - When was the mechanism behind cytokinesis first discovered?
1950s
560 - "Cell plate" is a term relative to cytokinesis in ______________________
plants
561 - Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholerae are ________________
peritrichous; monotrichous
562 - Nitrogen fixation can be done by ______________
Certain cyanobacteria
563 - F-plasmid contains ______________
Both OriV and OriT
564 - Which is the main building block of cilia?
Tubulin
565 - Which of the following is not a difference between cilia and flagella?
Axoneme present in cilia; Axoneme absent in flagella
566 - Which of the following is absent in Gram- negative bacteria and present in Gram- positive bacteria?
Teichoic acids
567 - Exotoxins are produced by _______________
Gram positive bacteria
568 - Which of the following statements is false?
Gram negative bacteria cell wall is thin and single layered.
569 - Which of the following are a Gram negative bacteria?
Neisseria gonorrheae
570 - Processing of mRNA includes __________
5′ capping, 3′ polyadenylation and RNA splicing
571 - The ability of importins and exportins to transport molecules in and out of the nucleoporins is regulated by ______________
GTPases
572 - Which of the following human cells are multinucleated?
Myocytes
573 - Why are red blood cells anucleated?
Absence of nucleus leads to increased space for haemoglobin that carries molecular oxygen
574 - Which of the following first binds to the NLS protein sequence?
Importin-alpha
575 - Which of the following displaces Importin-alpha from the cargo transported inside the nucleus?
CAS
576 - The import cycle of cargo or molecule inside the nucleus requires the hydrolysis of ___
2 GTPs
577 - Export of molecules from inside the nucleus to the cytoplasm needs hydrolysis ________
1 GTP
578 - Export of proteins with exportin CRM1 can be inhibited by ___________
Leptomycin B
579 - Which of the following cellular RNA is not dependent on RanGTP during transport outside nucleus?
mRNA
580 - Who discovered C4 cycle?
Hatch and Slack
581 - What is the enzyme used in the conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate?
Pyruvate orthophosphate dikinase
582 - Which of the following leaf anatomy is a characterization of C4 plants?
Kranz anatomy
583 - Which of the following is an example of C4 plants?
Sugarcane
584 - What is the final product of the C4 cycle?
Malate
585 - Where does the C4 pathway take place?
Mesophylls
586 - The C4 plants grow in the cold climate places.
FALSE
587 - The total carbon dioxide fixation done by the C4 plants is _________
0.23
588 - Which enzyme plays the role of a catalyst in CO2 fixation in C4 plants?
Carbonic anhydrase
589 - What is the chemical formula for oxaloacetic acid?
C4H4O5
590 - C4 pathway uses 5 ATP molecules and 4 NADPH molecules as the energy source.
FALSE
591 - Mitochondria are not able to transport NADH from cytosol.
TRUE
592 - How many molecules of ATP are formed from the catabolism of one glucose molecule?
36
593 - TCA cycle is a __________ process and glycolysis is a ______________ process.
aerobic, anaerobic
594 - Ionic gradient in which part of the mitochondrion drives the synthesis of ATP?
inner membrane
595 - Oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation are two different processes of ATP synthesis.
TRUE
596 - Which of the following type of cells recognize and kill the abnormal pathogen infected cells?
T-lymphocytes
597 - When was the term apoptosis coined?
1972
598 - Apoptosis is programmed cell death.
TRUE
599 - The CED3 gene product in nematodes has homologous _______________ in mammals.
caspases
600 - Inactivation of which of the following leads to detachment of the apoptotic cell?
FAK
601 - Inactivation of which of the following leads to shrinkage of the nucleus?
lamin
602 - Cytokines serve as _____________________ for apoptosis.
external stimuli
603 - Which of the following is an extracellular messenger of apoptosis?
tumor necrosis factor
604 - Which of the following is also termed as a death receptor?
TNFR1
605 - The TNFR1 is a trimeric receptor.
TRUE
606 - The last proteins to involve in the apoptotic pathway induced by TNF are ______________________
procaspase-8
607 - Which family of proteins regulates the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
Bcl-2
608 - Which of the following is involved in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
cytochrome c
609 - Apoptotic bodies can be recognized by the presence of _____________________ on the surface.
phosphatidylserine
610 - Which of the following was first examined under a microscope that later led to the discovery of cells?
Cork
611 - Who was the first person to describe various forms of bacteria?
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
612 - Who proposed that plant embryo arose from a single cell?
Matthias Schleiden
613 - Which of the following is a tenet of cell theory, as proposed by Theodor Schwann?
Cell is the structural unit of life
614 - Schleiden and Schwann believed that cells arise from non-cellular materials.
TRUE
615 - Rudolf Virchow, a German pathologist proposed the ___________________
third tenet of cell theory
616 - The cell theory consists of how many tenets?
3
617 - Which microscope was used by Anton van Leeuwenhoek?
single-lens
618 - Which form of Xeroderma pigmentosum is observed in patients who cannot synthesize functional polymerase Η?
XP V
619 - Replicative polymerase Η belongs to a family of polymerases involved in ________________
translesion synthesis
620 - Which if the following polymerases have an unusually spacious active site?
TLS polymerases
621 - Translesion synthesis polymerases lack processivity.
TRUE
622 - In an amino acid, the carboxyl group and amino group are separated from each other by a single ____________ atom.
carbon
623 - Amino acids used in the synthesis of proteins on a ribosome are ________________
L-amino acids
624 - What protein makes up spider silk?
Collagen
625 - Microorganisms use D-amino acids.
TRUE
626 - Which bonds are present in two neighboring amino acids?
Polypeptide bonds
627 - The longest known polypeptide is of the muscle protein called __________
titin
628 - Which of the following amino acids does not belong to polar charged group?
Serine
629 - Histidine is a polar uncharged amino acid.
FALSE
630 - Which residues are present in histone proteins?
Arginine & Histidine
631 - Which of the following groups of amino acids are least soluble in water?
Non-polar
632 - How many types of replication models were considered before the semiconservative nature of DNA replication was confirmed?
3
633 - Which isotopes were used by the researchers who first confirmed the semiconservative nature of DNA replication?
Nitrogen
634 - Temperature-sensitive mutants can not replicate their chromosomes at non-permissive temperatures.
TRUE
635 - The bacterial oriC is the __________________
specific sequence
636 - Movement of the replication fork generates ________________ in the unreplicated portion of DNA.
positive supercoils
637 - Which enzyme removes the positive supercoils generated when the replication fork?
gyrase
638 - When was DNA polymerase III discovered as the major enzyme behind DNA replication in bacteria?
1969
639 - The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
TRUE
640 - Who made the discovery that one DNA strand is synthesized discontinuously in fragments?
Reiji Okazaki
641 - Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand?
ligase
642 - Which of the following enzyme is responsible for initiating DNA replication?
primase
643 - Eough endoplasmic reticulum imports its proteins posttranslationally.
FALSE
644 - For which of the following organelles, the proteins to be imported remain in their native folded state?
Peroxisomes
645 - Most of the proteins of mitochondria are synthesized in the ______________
cytosol
646 - Mitochondrial matrix proteins have a target sequence, called presequence located at __________
N-terminus
647 - Hsp 70 and Hsp 90 are ____________ involved in the mitochondrial uptake of proteins.
chaperones
648 - Following its entry into the mitochondrial matrix, the peptide is _______________
folded to its native conformation
649 - In how many subcompartments of the chloroplasts, can the proteins be delivered?
6
650 - Most proteins destined for uptake by the chloroplasts are synthesized with a ________________
removable N-terminal sequence
651 - ‘Stroma targeting domain’ is located in the ________________
transit peptide
652 - Which of the following does not converge to activate the same signaling pathway?
Calmodulin
653 - Cyclic AMP can inhibit the growth of cells.
TRUE
654 - Activation of P13K in adherent epithelial cell promotes ___________________
cell survival
655 - CREB is a _____________________
transcription factor
656 - What is the key role of Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans?
Extracellular matrix interaction
657 - Which of the following helps in the attachment of cell to the extracellular matrix?
Cell-matrix adhesion complex
658 - How many exons do the syndecan have?
5
659 - What is the key role of fibroblasts?
Producing extracellular matrix
660 - The movement of cell with respect to rigidity is called durotaxis.
TRUE
661 - Hemidesmosomes are present in keratinocytes.
TRUE
662 - What is the use of matrix-bound nanovesicles?
Tissue engineering
663 - Which genetic disorder is associated with accumulation of proteoglycans?
Mucopolysaccharidoses
664 - Which of the following disease is associated with the disruption of hemidesmosomes?
Epidermolysis bullosa
665 - G-protein coupled receptors are referred to as seven-transmembrane receptors.
TRUE
666 - The G-protein coupled receptors have their _____________________ outside the cell.
amino terminus
667 - On the cytoplasmic site of GCPRs, the G-proteins bind to ___________________
third loop
668 - Which of the following is a stimulus for rhodopsin?
light
669 - The inactive conformation of a G-protein coupled receptor is stabilized by ____________________
non-covalent interactions
670 - The G-proteins bind only to _________________
guanine
671 - Desensitization is the process of blocking receptors from turning on ______________
G-proteins
672 - Arrestins compete with ________________ for binding with G-protein coupled receptors.
G-proteins
673 - Retinitis pigmentosa is an inherited disorder caused due to mutation in the gene that encodes for __________________
Rhodopsin
674 - Adenoma is caused by the over-secretion of ____________________
thyroid hormone
675 - A somatic mutation is present in all of the individual’s body cells.
FALSE
676 - The Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by ____________________
Herpes virus
677 - The Cholera toxin produced by Vibrio cholera exerts its effect by _____________________
modifying G-protein
678 - Epinephrine causes an increase in ____________________
blood glucose levels
679 - Who discovered desmosomes?
Giulio Bizzozero
680 - Who coined the term desmosomes?
Josef Schaffer
681 - Which tissues in our body contains abundant desmosomes?
Cardiac tissues
682 - Which of the following filaments bind to the cadherin and catenin complex?
Actin
683 - How many amino acids does the plakoglobin has?
745
684 - EPLIN acts as an enhancer for the binding process of actin cytoplasm and catenims.
TRUE
685 - What is macula adhaerens?
Desmosomes
686 - Which of the following disease is caused by the mutation of desmosomes?
Cardiomyopathy
687 - Which of the following disease is associated with desmoplakin disorder?
Carvajal syndrome
688 - When was it discovered that there is a correlation between cancer and the environment?
1775
689 - Which of the following is not a DNA tumor virus?
HIV
690 - Certain agents may be converted to mutagenic compounds by the action of cellular enzymes.
TRUE
691 - Which of the following virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?
Herpes-virus
692 - When the levels of glucose drop, alpha-cells in the pancreas secrete ____________________
glucagon
693 - Which of the following is a stomach-dwelling bacterium?
Helicobacter pylori
694 - Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can reduce the risk of __________________
Colon cancer
695 - Cyclooxygenase-2 synthesizes _____________________
prostaglandins
696 - What is photophosphorylation?
Addition of phosphate with light
697 - Who discovered photophosphorylation?
D Arnon
698 - Cyclic photophosphorylation has both photosystem I and II.
FALSE
699 - The site of photophosphorylation is __________
Chloroplast
700 - Which enzyme helps in the flow of protons from the thylakoid to the stroma?
ATP synthase
701 - How many micromoles of CO2 is fixed per milligram of chloroplast in an hour?
3.5
702 - Which of the following organisms contain Chlorosome?
Green Sulphur bacteria
703 - Which of the following organisms lack photophosphorylation?
Yeast
704 - In the conversion of ADP to ATP by the enzyme ATP synthase, which reaction helps in the movement of H+ across the membranes?
Chemiosmosis
705 - Which of the following protein is disrupted due to the disorder in photophosphorylation reaction?
D1
706 - The inactivation of photosynthesis is known as photo inhibition.
TRUE
707 - IgG is the predominant antibody in the secretion of respiratory tract.
FALSE
708 - Patients suffering from which of the following disease contain large quantities of a single type of antibodies?
multiple myeloma
709 - Plasma cells are mainly found in the bone marrow.
TRUE
710 - The antigenic determinant is called _________________
epitope
711 - Binding of which of the following antibody’s heavy chain initiates the lysis of bound bacterial cells?
IgM
712 - In which year was the two "gene - one polypeptide" hypothesis put forward?
1965
713 - Which segment of chromosome 2 encodes for the V region of antibody?
J-segment
714 - Class-switching of antibodies can occur by changing the ___________________
heavy chain
715 - Cyclosporin A is a drug that __________________
suppresses the immune system
716 - Fragments of antigens are held at the surface of antigen presenting cells by _________________
major histocompatibility complex
717 - The transport of water molecules from a solution to the cell cytoplasm occurs in _________
Hypotonic solution
718 - Plasmolysis occurs in __________
Hypertonic solution
719 - Which of the following channels depend on forces such as stretch tension applied on the membrane?
Mechano-gated channels
720 - The ion most abundant in cells and most permeable to cell membrane is ____________
K+
721 - Facilitative transporter ___________
Changes conformation, transports molecules and facilitated diffusion
722 - GLUT1 is an example of ______________
Facilitative transporter
723 - The ratio of Na+ and K+ transported by Na+/K+-ATPase pump is ___________
0.12638888889
724 - Symport and Antiport is the classification of ____________
Secondary active transport
725 - Halobacterium salinarium uses the following for the active transport of ions to induce purple colour.
Light energy
726 - During salt stress condition in Arabidopsis, which of the following antiport proteins are used?
AvPI and AtNHX
727 - Reactions that lose heat are termed as _____________
exothermic
728 - According to laws of thermodynamics, the energy of the Universe is _________ whereas the entropy ______________
constant, increases
729 - Exergonic processes are thermodynamically unfavorable.
FALSE
730 - Hydrolysis of ATP is which type of reaction?
Exergonic
731 - Cellular metabolism is a non-equilibrium metabolism.
TRUE
732 - Which of the following are responsible virtually for every reaction that takes place inside a cell?
Carbohydrates
733 - Protein catalysts are called __________ and RNA catalysts are called _____________
enzymes, ribozymes
734 - The non-protein constituents of conjugated proteins are called ___________
cofactors
735 - Enzymes have no effect on which of the following, in a chemical reaction?
thermodynamics
736 - What will happen if heat is applied to an enzyme mediated reaction?
Rate will increase
737 - Chymotrypsin is a ___________
enzyme
738 - Induced fit in an enzyme refers to ____________________
conformational change
739 - Allosteric site is same as enzyme’s active site.
FALSE
740 - Feedback inhibition is cell’s mechanism to _____________ the process of anabolism.
inhibit
741 - What is the process of synthesis of glucose by the liver is referred to as?
gluconeogenesis
742 - The lipids present in cell membrane are _____________
Ampipathic
743 - The model of a lipid bilayer lined by a layer of protein molecules on both sides was put forward by _____
Davson and Danielli
744 - The phosphoglycerides in cell membrane are of the _________ type.
Diglyceride
745 - Shingolipids is the derivative of ______________
Sphingosine
746 - Which of the following is not a component of cell membranes?
Phosphotriglycerides
747 - In animals, the amount of cholesterol present in cell membrane is ___________
0.3333
748 - Which part of cholesterol molecule is not embedded in the lipid bilayer?
Hydroxyl end of cholesterol
749 - Which of the following is exoplasmic?
Phosphatidyl choline
750 - Which of the following facilitates binding of positively charged amino acid residues?
Phosphatidyl serine (PS)
751 - Which of the following promote curvature of cell membrane?
Phosphatidyl ethanolamine (PE)
752 - Carbohydrates present in cell membrane are generally ___________
Oligosaccharides
753 - Lipid rafts are ___________
Patches of cholesterol and sphingolipids in lipid bilayer
754 - Which of the following is used in PAGE to prevent the mixing of the sample with running buffer?
sucrose
755 - Proteins with greater charge density move faster in the PAGE.
TRUE
756 - In gel electrophoresis, the globular proteins move slower than the fibrous proteins.
FALSE
757 - When was the technique of two-dimensional gel electrophoresis developed?
1975
758 - Which of the following amino acid absorbs the light of 280 nm?
tyrosine
759 - For a mass spectrometric analysis, the compounds are converted into ___________________
gaseous ions
760 - In mass-spectrometry, proteins are separated base on their _____________________
m/z ratio
761 - Which is the main ingredient in the sample preparation of mass spectrometry?
trypsin
762 - MALDI is a technique of ______________________
ionization
763 - Electrospray ionization is suited for proteins that are __________________
in solution
764 - Which of the following techniques delivers the amino-acid sequence of a peptide?
Tandem MS
765 - In X-ray diffraction, the protein crystals are bombarded with ____________
X rays
766 - Which was the first protein to have its structure determined using X-ray crystallography?
myoglobin
767 - Synchrotrons generate _____________________
X rays
768 - Electron cryomicroscopy is used mainly for _______________
non-soluble proteins
769 - The main function of lysosomes is ____________
digestion
770 - Where is the proton pump located in a lysosome?
membrane
771 - Kupffer cells are located in the _________
liver
772 - Which of the following are phagocytic cells?
neutrophils, macrophages
773 - Destruction and replacement of cell’s own organelles is called ____________
turnover
774 - In autophagy, the organelle’s to be ingested are covered by a ______________
double membrane
775 - When a cell is in nutrient deprived state, autophagy increases.
TRUE
776 - After the digestive process in an autophagolysosome is over, it is termed as _______________
residual body
777 - Lipofuscin granules decrease in number as individual grows older.
FALSE
778 - In the ‘I-cell disease’, lysosomes are ___________
bloated
779 - The enzyme N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase is responsible for ____________
mannose phosphorylation
780 - Lysosomal storage disorders are caused due to ______________
absence of a single lysosome
781 - Gaucher disease is caused due to deficiency of ______________
glucocerebrosidase
782 - The sheep Dolly was cloned in the year ___________
1997
783 - Single cells from an adult animal can give rise to whole new individuals.
FALSE
784 - How many types of cells were fused in the cloning of Dolly?
2
785 - The transcriptional state of a cell is irreversible.
FALSE
786 - The processing-level control is concerned with ____________
primary transcripts
787 - What percent of a typical Red blood cell is constituted by hemoglobin?
95
788 - Which type of control determines for how long will a particular mRNA be translated?
Translational-level
789 - Nucleoporins are __________
Nuclear pores
790 - The transport factors that help in the transport of molecules through the nuclear pores are known as ___________
Karyopherins
791 - Lamin proteins that bind to the intra-nuclear chromatin are _____________
LEM-3
792 - Nuclear Organizer Regions (NOR) is found in ________
Nucleolus
793 - Cajal bodies mainly consist of the protein _________
Coilin
794 - Which of the following is not a function of Cajal bodies?
tRNA processing
795 - Which of the following is also known as Kremer bodies?
PML bodies
796 - Which of the following plays a role in oncogenic function?
Kremer bodies
797 - Nuclear speckles ______________
perform splicing of snRNPs
798 - Which of the following is not true?
They are present during interphase and absent during mitosis.
799 - Which agents are used in passive immunotherapy of cancer?
Antibodies
800 - Conventional therapies like chemosurgery kill a large number of healthy cells in addition to cancer cells.
TRUE
801 - Spontaneous remissions were studied by which of the following scientists?
William Coley
802 - Which of the following is a humanized antibody?
Herceptin
803 - Which drug was approved in 1997 for the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma?
Rituxan
804 - The drug Vectibix is directed against _____________________
EGF receptor
805 - Adoptive immunotherapy involves the person’s own immune system for treatment against cancer.
TRUE
806 - Which immune cells are generally used in the treatment of cancer using adoptive immunotherapy?
Dendritic cells
807 - Which of the following disease is caused by a chromosomal translocation?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
808 - Angiogenesis is the process of formation of __________________
blood vessels
809 - Cancer cells promote angiogenesis by secreting ________________________
growth factors
810 - Endostatin is a ___________________
angiogenesis inhibitor
811 - 90% of the volume of a plant cell is occupied by the vacuole.
TRUE
812 - In plant cells, by-products of the metabolic pathways are stored in _____________
vacuole
813 - Which of the following is a toxic by-product stored in the plant cell vacuole that is clinical importance?
digitalis
814 - Tonoplast is a ___________
membrane
815 - Water enters the vacuole by ____________
osmosis
816 - Plant vacuoles are also sites of intracellular digestion.
TRUE
817 - Which of the following is used to lyse the nucleus and release the DNA?
sodium dodecyl sulfate
818 - In purification steps of nucleic-acids, phenol is used for _______________________
deproteinization
819 - Which of the following is used to precipitate the nucleic acids?
ethanol
820 - Phenol is an active protein denaturant.
TRUE
821 - Which type of gel is used for large nucleic acids?
agarose
822 - Which technique is used to separate nucleic acids of size greater than 25 kb?
Pulsed-field electrophoresis
823 - In rate-zonal sedimentation, the nucleic acids are separated base on __________________
nucleotide length
824 - Equilibrium centrifugation is also known as ___________________ centrifugation.
isopycnic
825 - Which technique can be used to separate 15N and 14N?
Isopycnic centrifugation
826 - Nucleic acid hybridization is used to identify ________________________
Complementary base sequences
827 - The procedure by which DNA gel is transferred to a membrane is termed as ___________________
blotting
828 - In which of the following techniques, the DNA is labeled using complementary sequences and then analyzed using autoradiography?
Southern blotting
829 - Which of the following molecules can be analyzed using a northern blot?
RNA
830 - Which of the following is a commonly used label in blotting techniques?
biotin
831 - Catabolic pathways result in _______________ of the molecules.
disassembly
832 - Energy released by catabolic pathways is stored in how many forms?
2
833 - Anabolic pathways are energy-requiring.
TRUE
834 - How many molecules of ATP are formed per molecule of oxidation of glucose?
36
835 - The TCA cycle occurs in which region of a prokaryotic cell?
cytosol
836 - Glycolysis begins with which of the following reactions?
phosphorylation
837 - NAD is a _________
cofactor
838 - NAD⺠can be derived from which vitamin?
Niacin
839 - In fermentation, which of the following is regenerated?
NADâº
840 - In case of repeated contraction, muscle cells regenerate NAD⺠by converting pyruvate to _____________
lactate
841 - Yeast cells convert pyruvate to lactate.
FALSE
842 - A cell’s reservoir of NADPH represents its _______________
reducing power
843 - How many mechanisms exist for altering the shape of an enzyme, playing a role in regulating glucose oxidation?
2
844 - Protein kinases are responsible for transferring which group?
phosphate
845 - How many types of protein kinases are there?
2
846 - Abnormal elevation of cytosolic Calcium can occur following a _____________
stroke
847 - Calcium acts as an intracellular messenger.
TRUE
848 - Fura-2 is an example of __________________
fluorescent molecule
849 - Upon fertilization, a wave of calcium release is observed throughout the cell.
TRUE
850 - How many types of calcium ion channels are present on ER membrane?
2
851 - Ryanodine is a _______________
alkaloid
852 - Which receptors open up during the calcium-induced calcium release?
Ryanodine receptors
853 - Which ions activate cyclin-dependent kinases, following fertilization?
Ca2+
854 - Which of the following is a calcium-binding protein?
calmodulin
855 - Calmodulin has low affinity for _____________
non-stimulated cells
856 - In which part of the plant, does photosynthesis takes place?
Quantosomes
857 - Which pigment protects the photosystem from ultraviolet radiation?
Carotenoids
858 - What is the name of the book written by Jan Ingenhousz, which explains the basis of photosynthesis?
Experiments upon Vegetables
859 - Photosystem II happens before photosystem I.
TRUE
860 - Which of the following amino acid is helpful in the synthesis of plastoquinone?
Tyrosine
861 - What is the other name of Plastoquinol - plastocyanin reductase?
Cytochrome b6f complex
862 - What is the maximum wavelength of light photosystem II can absorb?
680nm
863 - Which of the following Vitamins act as an electron acceptor in light dependent photosynthesis?
Vitamin K
864 - During photosynthesis, how many chlorophyll molecules are required to produce one oxygen molecule?
3000
865 - Muscle cells are ___________
cylindrically shaped
866 - Muscle cells are formed from the fusion of ___________
myoblasts
867 - The striated appearance of muscle fibers is due to _______________
sacromeres
868 - All skeletal muscles operate by _______________
shortening
869 - ________ of the sacromere remains unaffected during the muscle contraction.
A band
870 - The "Sliding filament model of muscle contraction" was proposed in the year ____________
1954
871 - According to "Sliding filament model of muscle contraction", shortening of sacromeres results from sliding of the filaments.
TRUE
872 - Which of the following proteins are not found in muscle fibres?
keratin
873 - Each tropomyosin is associated with _______ subunits of actin subunits.
7
874 - Troponin is composed of _____ subunits.
3
875 - Titin is the largest protein discovered till date.
TRUE
876 - Which of the following prevents sacromeres from pulling apart during muscle stretching?
titin
877 - Circular DNAs are negatively supercoiled.
TRUE
878 - Etoposide and doxorubicin, the drugs used in Cancer treatment target the enzyme ___________
topoisomerase II
879 - The three-dimensional structure of DNA can be described by _________
X-ray crystallography
880 - The haploid set of human chromosomes consist of __________ chromosomes
23
881 - The process of DNA melting can be monitored by a change in ___________
absorbance
882 - The temperature at which the shift in absorbance is half completed is termed as ___________
melting temperature
883 - Higher the concentration of GC content, lower the Tm.
FALSE
884 - DNA renaturation was first realized in the year ___________
1960
885 - Reannealing or renaturation of the DNA is the basis of the technique ___________
nucleic acid hybridization
886 - For three different samples of DNA with same concentration, the rate of annealing will depend on __________
genome size
887 - Percentage of highly repeated DNA sequences in a genome is __________
15-20%
888 - Which of the following type of DNA sequences for the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
Minisatellite DNA
889 - Which type of DNA have been used to analyze relationship between different human populations?
Microsatellite DNA
890 - In situ hybridization was aimed at determining the location of _______
satellite DNA
891 - Moderately repeated DNA sequences can vary from _______ percent of the total DNA.
20-50
892 - Isolation of an organelle in bulk quantity can be accomplished by _____________
differential centrifugation
893 - The isotonic buffer solution prevents _________
membrane rupture
894 - Density gradient centrifugation is a type of isopycnic centrifugation.
TRUE
895 - Which of the following can be used to study cellular activities?
Cell-free systems
896 - Nitric oxide is an intracellular messenger.
TRUE
897 - Nitric oxide is formed from which of the amino acid?
L-arginine
898 - Acetylcholine has the function of ________________________
muscle relaxation
899 - The diffusible agent produced by binding of acetylcholine to endothelial cells is __________________
nitric oxide
900 - Binding of acetylcholine to outer surface of endothelial cells, signals _____________________
increase in cytosolic Ca2+ concentration
901 - The nitric oxide binds to and stimulates guanylyl cyclase.
TRUE
902 - Which of the following compounds is metabolized into nitric oxide?
Nitroglycerine
903 - The development of Viagra is related to the discovery of nitric oxide as a ____________________
secondary messenger
904 - Viagra is specific for which isoform of cGMP phosphodiesterase?
PDE5
905 - The posttranslational modification involving nitric oxide is called __________________
S-nitrosylation
906 - The free energy released during electron transport is utilized to move protons from _____________ to inner membrane and cytosol.
matrix
907 - Proton motive force is the net sum of how many gradient components?
2
908 - The contribution made by electric potential versus pH gradient to the proton motive force (Δp) is determined by which property of the mitochondrial membrane?
permeability
909 - The approximate proton motive force of an actively respiring mitochondrion is ____________ mV.
220
910 - The maintenance of proton motive force requires that inner mitochondrial membrane remains permeable to protons.
FALSE
911 - For which organelle proton motive force is also a source of energy?
mitochondrion
912 - Mutations in which of the following genes lead to a rare form of muscular dystrophy?
lamin
913 - Most alterations in the genes occur during ____________________
cell division
914 - The chromosomal aberrations follow _____________________
chromosomal breakage
915 - Which of the following is a rare genetic disorder?
Fanconi anemia
916 - Which is not a type of chromosomal aberration?
mutations
917 - Inversions can lead to a deletion or duplication in the chromosome.
TRUE
918 - The Philadelphia chromosome is the best studied example of ________________
translocation
919 - The translocated part of Philadelphia chromosome is found on chromosome ________
9
920 - Zygotes containing chromosomal deletion are produced by ___________
abnormal meiosis
921 - Unlike the 23 pairs of chromosomes in human cells, chimpanzees have 24 pairs of chromosomes.
TRUE
922 - When was the first correlation between a chromosomal deletion and human disorder first developed?
1963
923 - Partial trisomy is the presence of _____ copies of a gene.
3
924 - The cry-of-the-cat syndrome is due to a defect in chromosome __________
5
925 - Bacteriophage Lambda is a major cloning vector.
TRUE
926 - Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by ______________________
Kary Mullis
927 - Taq polymerase is a ________________________ polymerase.
heat-stable
928 - The temperature cycles in a polymerase chain reaction are in the order __________________
95°, 60°, 72°
929 - Which enzyme is active at 72° in the polymerase chain reaction?
polymerase
930 - PCR can generate large amounts of DNA.
TRUE
931 - Molecular beacons are short ____________________
oligonucleotides
932 - When was the nucleotide sequence of a viral genome first elucidated?
1977
933 - DNA libraries are collection of ______________________
cloned DNA fragments
934 - cDNA libraries are produced from ______________________
messenger RNAs
935 - The endonuclease HaeIII recognizes ______________________ sequence.
tri-nucleotide
936 - Which of the following can be used to clone DNA sequence of size larger than 25 kb?
Yeast artificial chromosome
937 - Bacterial artificial chromosomes are the __________________ of bacterial cells.
F-factors
938 - Viral-mediated gene transfer is called _______________
transduction
939 - The process of introducing DNA into cells is called ____________________
transfection
940 - The DNA structure was investigated in the year __________
1953
941 - Nucleotide, basic unit of DNA consists of the sugar _________________
deoxyribose
942 - Purines are a type of nitrogenous bases that consist of _____ ring(s).
2
943 - Guanine and adenine are _______________
purines
944 - A nucleotide has a non-polarized structure.
FALSE
945 - Which of the following was discovered by Chargaff’s experiment in 1950?
base composition
946 - Who suggested that DNA composed of three nucleotide strands?
Linus Pauling
947 - The helical nature of DNA was revealed by the work of ______________
Rosalind Franklin
948 - The phosphate molecules present on the DNA strand give it a large positive charge.
FALSE
949 - Which kinds of forces stabilize the DNA structure?
hydrophobic, van der Waals
950 - What is the width of the DNA double helix?
2 nm
951 - Proteins can interact with a DNA molecule by ____________________
fitting into the grooves
952 - The supercoiled state of DNA was first discovered in the year __________
1963
953 - Supercoiled DNA is more compact than its relaxed counterpart and therefore __________
sediments faster
954 - Which of the following is used to visualize DNA molecules in a gel?
ethidium bromide
955 - Parts of a cell can be isolated and cultured in a laboratory.
FALSE
956 - The first culture of human cells began in ________
1951
957 - Which cells are found in the intestinal lining?
Epithelial cells
958 - Microvilli are composed of ____________
actin
959 - Which organelle is located at the basal end of epithelial cells lining the intestine?
Mitochondria
960 - In cellular division, one cell gives rise to two daughter cells containing equal volume. However such a case of regular division is not observed in ________________
Oocytes
961 - Light energy is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis and is stored in________________
Carbohydrates
962 - In humans, glucose in the body is released by _____________
Liver
963 - The sum total of all the chemical reactions taking place inside the cell, represent the cell’s _______________
Metabolism
964 - Motor proteins help in regulation which activities in a cell?
Mechanical
965 - German embryologist, Hans Driesch used which organism’s embryo in his studies?
Sea-urchin
966 - Which are the two most important macromolecules of a cell?
Nucleic Acids, Proteins
967 - Which of the following is used by cells to interact with other cells?
Cell junctions
968 - What is the name of the interaction made by the immune system?
Transient
969 - Cell junction is abundant in __________
Epithelial cells
970 - What is the function of tight junctions in epithelial cells?
Separation of fluids
971 - Tight junctions are made up of single junctions in our body.
FALSE
972 - Which of the following is the continuous channel formed by the cell membranes?
Annular Shell
973 - What do you mean by leukocyte extravasation?
Movement of leukocytes to tissues
974 - Which of the following is a signaling molecule for bacteria?
Homoserine lactones
975 - Bacteria uses glycoproteins and glycolipids to attach itself to the host cell.
TRUE
976 - Which of the following is the result of platelet interaction?
Coagulation
977 - Which microtubule-associated motor protein is responsible for the movement of cilia?
dynein
978 - How many cytoplasmic dyneins are present in eukaryotic cells?
2
979 - Colcemid is a drug that acts on ___________
tubulin
980 - Outer microtubules in a cilium are generated from ______________
basal body
981 - Microtubules of cilia are stable.
TRUE
982 - Cilia and flagella are the same structure.
TRUE
983 - Non-motile cilia are called _________________
primary cilium
984 - Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) is caused due to mutations in genes that affect the assembly of _____________
cilia
985 - Ciliopathies were first identified in model organisms _________________
C. elegans
986 - The core of the cilium is called ________________
axoneme
987 - Purification of a protein can be measured as an increase in _____________
specific activity
988 - Total nitrogen measurement can be used to measure ____________
total protein
989 - Protein’s solubility depends on the relative balance between protein-solvent and protein-protein interactions.
TRUE
990 - Which of the following can be used for selective precipitation of proteins?
ammonium sulfate
991 - In the liquid column chromatography, there are two phases namely ___________________ and ____________________
mobile, immobile
992 - Which of the following uses non-compressible matrix and high pressure?
HPLC
993 - When the pH of a protein is lowered _________________________
negatively-charged groups neutralize
994 - A protein is neutral at the isoelectric point.
TRUE
995 - Which of the following is used as an ion-exchanger resin?
cellulose
996 - In ion-exchange chromatography, proteins bound to the resin can be displaced by increasing the _____________________
strength of ionic buffer
997 - Gel-filtration chromatography separates proteins based on their ___________________
effective size
998 - In gel-filtration chromatography, the proteins ______________________
diffuse through the column
999 - Proteins interacting with specific substances can be separated using ___________________
affinity chromatography
1000 - The yeast two-hybrid system is used for studying ________________________
protein-protein interactions
1001 - Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis uses ___________________ to separate proteins.
electric field
1002 - How many types of cell signaling are there?
3
1003 - In which type of signaling, the cell that expresses messenger molecules also produces receptors?
autocrine
1004 - Cell signaling is a process by which cells communicate.
TRUE
1005 - Paracrine messenger molecules are usually ________________
unstable
1006 - Endocrine messengers are also called ___________________
hormones
1007 - The primary messenger molecules bind to the transmembrane receptors.
TRUE
1008 - Protein kinases and phosphatases act by altering ______________ of the signaling proteins.
conformation
1009 - To which of the following residues of the protein, the protein kinases do not add phosphate groups?
cytosine
1010 - The process by which extracellular messages translate into intracellular changes is termed _________________
signal transduction
1011 - The a, b, and c respectively in the following image are _________________________
autocrine, paracrine, endocrine
1012 - Steroids are derived from ________________
cholesterol
1013 - Which messenger molecules are derived from arachidonic acid?
eicosanoids
1014 - G-protein coupled receptors contain ________ transmembrane alpha helices.
7
1015 - Whole genome duplication is termed as __________________
polyploidization
1016 - Which hypothesis was proposed by Susuma Ohno in 1971?
2R hypothesis
1017 - Amphioxus is a _____________________
marine animal
1018 - Gene duplication occurs by unequal crossing over.
TRUE
1019 - Unequal crossing over takes place due to _______________ of chromosomes.
misalignment
1020 - Which of the following is an intervening, non-coding sequences?
intron
1021 - Pseudogenes are _______________
non-functional
1022 - Who was the first person to suggest that genes were capable of moving around the genome?
Barbara McClintock
1023 - Transposase is a __________ enzyme.
bacterial
1024 - In human cell nucleus, at least _____ percent of DNA has been derived from transposable elements.
None of the mentioned
1025 - Which of the following type of repeating sequence arise due to transposition of elements?
moderately repeating sequences
1026 - DNA transposons found in the human genome are capable of movement.
FALSE
1027 - Alu sequences are ________________
retrotransposons
1028 - Mercaptoethanol breaks which bonds present in the protein?
Disulphide
1029 - The tertiary structure of a protein corresponds to which energy state?
Lowest
1030 - The Creutzfeld-Jacob disease attacks the ______________
brain
1031 - Which protein is involved in Creutzfeld-Jacob disease (CJD)?
Prion
1032 - The mutated and normal prion proteins associated with CJD have the same amino acid sequence.
TRUE
1033 - Amyloid is a ____________
fibrillar deposits
1034 - Which peptide for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease was approved by the government for phase I clinical trial?
Aβ42
1035 - Which of the following is an antibody against Aβ42 peptide?
Bapineuzumab
1036 - Which of the following is an NSAID for Alzheimer’s disease, that lead to Phase III clinical trials?
Flurizan
1037 - In addition to amyloid-β peptide, which other protein is misfolded in the brains of Alzheimer’s disease patients?
Tau
1038 - Methylthionium chloride is a __________________
drug
1039 - Meiosis ensures the production of a haploid phase.
TRUE
1040 - One round of meiotic division gives rise to _____ haploid cells.
4
1041 - A highly specialized sperm cell is also called ________________
spermatozoon
1042 - Vertebrate eggs are typically fertilized before ___________________ is complete.
meiosis
1043 - Zygotic meiosis only occurs in _______________________
fungi
1044 - The sporic or intermediate meiosis is unrelated to gamete formation.
TRUE
1045 - Leptotene and zygotene are the stages that occur during _____________ of meiosis.
prophase II
1046 - Chiasmata are ____ shaped structures.
X
1047 - Aneuploidy is the condition associated with ______________
abnormal chromosome umber
1048 - A fetus with which of the following abnormalities might not succumb soon after birth?
trisomy 21
1049 - __________ in males occurs with a much lower level of chromosomal abnormalities than in females.
Meiosis
1050 - Presence of an extra copy of which chromosome leads to the Doen syndrome?
chromosome 21
1051 - The absence of second X chromosome in a female leads to _______________________
Turner syndrome
1052 - Klinefelter syndrome is associated with ________________
human males
1053 - The likelihood of having a child with Down syndrome increases with _________________
age of mother
1054 - Cortex (of a cell) is located beneath the _____________
plasma membrane
1055 - Which type of cytoskeletal elements are involved in nonmuscle motility?
microfilaments
1056 - Nucleation is the slowest step in actin filament formation.
TRUE
1057 - Which of the following nucleating protein generates unbranched actin filaments?
formin
1058 - Which of the following binds to G-actin?
thymosin
1059 - Monomer-sequestering proteins are responsible for high concentration of G-actin in nonmuscle cells.
TRUE
1060 - Tropomodulin is a ___________
capping protein
1061 - Which of the following has an opposing role as that of thymosin?
profilin
1062 - Which of the following can fragment actin filaments?
cofilin
1063 - Filamin is an example of ___________ proteins.
cross-linking
1064 - Cross-linking proteins villin and fimbrin are found in ___________
microvilli
1065 - The protein responsible for muscular dystrophy, dystrophin, is a __________ protein.
membrane-binding
1066 - An organism in which cell motility takes place solely as a result of actin polymerization is ____________________
Listeria monocytogenes
1067 - ActA, a surface protein activates the ______________
Arp2/3 complex
1068 - Lamellipodium is a protrusion of ________________
actin filaments
1069 - Mitochondria is the organ for ______
Cellular respiration
1070 - The protruding invaginated sheets inside mitochondria is known as _____
Cristae
1071 - The inner boundary membrane and inner cristal membrane are joined by ____
Cristae junctions
1072 - Which part of mitochondria has almost 70-75% protein content?
Inner membrane
1073 - Which part of mitochondria is responsible for the degradation of many enzymes?
Outer membrane
1074 - In the inner membrane of mitochondria, there is one protein molecule for approximately every _______
15 phospholipids
1075 - Cardiolipin present in inner mitochondrial membrane plays a role in ___________
Activation of proteins involved in electron oxidation
1076 - Porins are present in ____________
Both inner and outer membrane
1077 - The mitochondrial DNA in humans encode for how many poplypeptides?
13
1078 - Human mitochondrial DNA encodes for ____________
2 rRNAs
1079 - Human mitochondrial DNA encodes for _________
22 tRNA
1080 - The mitochondrial RNA polymerase is made up of _____________
1 subunit
1081 - T-cells are activated by _______________
fragments of antigens
1082 - The dendritic cells were discovered by _______________
Ralph Steinman
1083 - Each T-cell has a single species of T-cell receptor.
TRUE
1084 - The activation of T-cell by the dendritic cells is associated with __________________
increase in calcium ions
1085 - Proliferation of T-cells in response to antigen presentation is accompanied by enlargement of __________________
lymph nodes
1086 - After the clearance of foreign antigen, the expanded T-cell population ________________
dies by apoptosis
1087 - T-cells secrete antibodies for eradicating the infected cells.
FALSE
1088 - Cytokines are ________________
proteins
1089 - Chemokines act as ___________________
chemoattractants
1090 - Perforins and granzymes are secreted by ______________________
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
1091 - After entering the target cells, the granzymes activate the ______________________
caspases
1092 - Cytotoxic T cells are _____________
CD8+
1093 - Helper T lymphocytes possess ____________ proteins on their surface.
CD4
1094 - Which of the following is the main target of HIV?
Helper T cells
1095 - Which of the following is an essential requirement for the differentiation of regulatory T cells?
FOXP3
1096 - "Dark matter" is the region of the chromosome that constitutes highly repeated sequences.
TRUE
1097 - The process by which a single gene can code for multiple proteins is called ___________
alternative splicing
1098 - Systems biology is the study of Biological systems in humans.
FALSE
1099 - Intergenic and intronic DNA are essentially same.
FALSE
1100 - Some of the fastest evolving genes encode for proteins involved in _________________________
regulation of gene expression
1101 - Which of the following regions is involved in the development of brain?
HAR
1102 - The AMY1 gene encodes for __________
amylase
1103 - The FOXP2 gene is responsible for _________________
speech
1104 - Sites in the genome that are different among individuals are referred to as __________________
genetic polymorphisms
1105 - Which of the following blocks of DNA have a low frequency of recombination?
Haplotypes
1106 - Who discovered plasmodesmata?
Strasburger
1107 - Gap junctions are otherwise known as plasmodesmata.
FALSE
1108 - Gap junctions are absent in __________
Sperm cells
1109 - What is the gap junction in nerves called?
Electrical synapse
1110 - What is the diameter of a gap junction?
1.2 - 2 nm
1111 - What is the chemical formula for rotigaptide?
C28H39N7O9
1112 - Which cell organelle covers the plasmodesmata of the cells?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
1113 - Which genetic disorder is associated with dysfunction of gap junction?
Vohwinkel’s syndrome
1114 - Which of the following disease associated with the nervous system is caused by disorder in gap junctions?
Brain ischemia
1115 - Fluidity and viscosity are the same.
FALSE
1116 - Which of the following attributes of the membrane is most affected at the transition temperature?
fluidity
1117 - The ___________ the degree of unsaturation of the fatty acids of the bilayer, the ___________ the temperature before the bilayer gels.
greater, lower
1118 - Which of the following molecules affects the mobility of fatty acyl chains in the plasma membrane?
cholesterol
1119 - Which of the following occurs in the membrane, when the temperature is lowered?
desaturation
1120 - Lipid rafts are patches of cholesterol and ________________
sphingolipids
1121 - Cell fusion can be performed on two cells from different species.
TRUE
1122 - In the experiments to demonstrate the mobility of membrane proteins, which cells were fused with human cells?
mouse cells
1123 - Which phenomena are made use of in the technique FRAP?
fluorescence
1124 - Which type of molecules are used in SPT?
gold particles
1125 - The use of optical tweezers in membrane biology was done to confirm the ________________ nature of membranes.
elastic
1126 - The sperm cell is covered by a _____________
continuous membrane
1127 - Hemolysis is associated with which type of cells?
red blood cells
1128 - Band 3 and glycophorins are membrane proteins that contain ________________
carbohydrates
1129 - Which is the first membrane protein to have its amino acid sequence determined?
Glycophorin A
1130 - The segregation of alleles on one trait did not have any effect on the segregation of alleles on a different trait. This is based on ____________
Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment
1131 - Genes that show tendency to be inherited together is known as ____________
Linkage group
1132 - Giant polytene chromosomes are found in ___________
Salivary gland of larvae of fruit fly
1133 - An example of co-dominance is ____________
Human ABO blood group system
1134 - How can it be determined whether the parent progeny is homozygous or heterozygous?
Test cross
1135 - The expression of Holandric genes causes the following genetic trait ______________
Hypertrichosis
1136 - The method of DNA replication is _____________
semi-conservative
1137 - The DNA binding proteins bind at the _______________
Major groove
1138 - DNA denaturation can occur through ________
All of the mentioned
1139 - Human Genome Project was focused on discovering the details of ___________
Junk DNA
1140 - Which of the following are untranslated regions of messenger RNAs?
UTRs
1141 - Which of the following is not an aspect of translational-level control?
mRNA degradation
1142 - Messenger RNA from which gene is localized at the anterior end of fruit fly?
bicoid
1143 - During the process of cytoplasmic localization, translation is inhibited.
TRUE
1144 - Pre-synthesized mRNAs are stored in the __________________ in an inactive state.
cytoplasm
1145 - When human cell is subjected to stressful condition ___________________ is activated.
protein kinase
1146 - Which of the following is a contributor of mRNA stability?
Poly(A) tail
1147 - The degradation of mRNA begins, when its tail reduces to _________ residues.
30
1148 - Which of the following is a temporary storage site for RNAs?
P-bodies
1149 - To carry out translational-level control, miRNAs bind to __________ of their target mRNAs.
3’
1150 - Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of microRNAs?
dicer
1151 - The genetic material of a prokaryote is present in the ______________
Nucleoid
1152 - Which of the following is not true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Both contain Golgi apparatus for protein trafficking
1153 - Which of the following is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Proteasomes
1154 - Which of the following polysaccharide is not present in the eukaryotic plant cell wall?
Chitin
1155 - Biofilms are ________________
Complex, multispecies communities
1156 - Escherichia coli commonly inhabit the _______________ place.
Human digestive tract
1157 - How many basal body rings do Gram positive bacteria have in the flagella?
2
1158 - The rotary engine made of protein at the base of the flagella is driven by ______________
Proton- motive force
1159 - Who elaborated on the significance of codons?
George Gamow
1160 - The genetic code is degenerate.
TRUE
1161 - How many codons do not code for amino acids?
3
1162 - The degeneracy of code was originally predicted by __________________
Francis Crick
1163 - First artificially synthesized gene sequence was _________________
poly(U)
1164 - Which was the first artificially synthesized polypeptide?
polyphenylalanine
1165 - UGA is a universal stop codon.
FALSE
1166 - Which of the following is a stop codon in mitochondrial mRNA?
AGG
1167 - A change in nucleotide sequence that does not affect the amino acid sequence is called _____________ change.
synonymous
1168 - Which of the following is not a proximal promoter element?
AT
1169 - Deletion maps are used to determine sites in the genome which interact with ___________________
transcription factors
1170 - Which type of enzymes is used in DNA footprinting?
DNA-digesting enzymes
1171 - Which enzyme is used to kill the cells in genome-wide location analysis?
formaldehyde
1172 - Chromatin immuno-precipitation is induced by _____________________
antibodies
1173 - Microarrays used in the ChIP experiments contain non-coding DNA.
TRUE
1174 - Analogues of glucocorticoids are prescribed as ________________ agents.
anti-inflammatory
1175 - Glucocorticoids are released during periods of __________________
stress
1176 - Expression of genes is also regulated by distant DNA elements called _________________
enhancers
1177 - Which of the following majorly influences the activity of genes during early mammalian development?
inheritance
1178 - Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is caused due to disturbances in which of the following chromosomes?
15
1179 - A single gene can encode two or more related proteins by the process of _________________
alternative splicing
1180 - RNA editing is the mechanism in which specific amino acids are converted after _______________
transcription
1181 - RNA editing is particularly important in the ________________
nervous system
1182 - Which of the following products of RNA editing plays an important role in the absorption of fats?
apolipoprotein B-48
1183 - Which of the following molecules is present in the mitochondrion?
Acetyl CoA
1184 - The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the ______________
cytosol
1185 - How many reactions are constituted in a glycolytic pathway?
15
1186 - At the expense of two ATP molecules, how many phosphate groups are present on the fructose in the third step of glycolysis?
2
1187 - How many molecules of ATP are formed per molecule of glucose oxidized?
2
1188 - Most of the free energy present in the glucose is stored as ATP after glycolysis.
FALSE
1189 - In presence of oxygen, how many additional molecules of ATP can be formed by metabolizing pyruvate and NADH in the mitochondria?
more than 30
1190 - Decarboxylation of pyruvate group takes place in the ________________
cytosol
1191 - Coenzyme A is derived from _________________
pantothenic acid
1192 - Who discovered cell wall?
Karl Rudolphi
1193 - What organism lacks cell wall?
Protozoa
1194 - Bacteria can be divided into classes namely gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall.
TRUE
1195 - Which component is present in the cell wall of fungi?
Chitin
1196 - What is S- layer?
Surface layer
1197 - The cell wall of diatoms composed of __________
Biogenic silica
1198 - Which of the following bacteria lacks cell wall?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
1199 - What is present in the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Mycolic acid
1200 - Which of the following antibiotics have their mode of action of inhibition of cell wall synthesis?
β-lactams
1201 - Which of the following cell wall component can effectively defend against lysozyme?
Pseudomurein
1202 - Response to external stimulus is called _______________
irritability
1203 - Information is coded in the form of fast moving impulse in which types of cells?
neurons
1204 - Which part of a neuron receives information from other neurons?
dendrites
1205 - The information is forwarded from the neuron through which part?
axon
1206 - Myelin sheath is composed mainly of _____________
lipids
1207 - Membrane potential is present only in nerve cells.
FALSE
1208 - Which of the following exists in nerve and muscle cells?
resting potential
1209 - Which of the following has the highest permeability in a resting nerve cell?
K+
1210 - On which of the following organisms, the research on nerve cells was first carried out?
Giant squid
1211 - Depolarization is when ___________ ions flow inside the neuron’s membrane.
Sodium
1212 - A neuron fires when _____________________
action potential is achieved
1213 - Saltatory conduction occurs due to _______________
nodes of ranvier
1214 - Local anesthetics act by _____________ the ion channels.
closing
1215 - Action potential can only flow in the forward direction.
TRUE
1216 - Energy absorbed from sunlight is stored as chemical energy in which of the following biomolecules?
ATP, NADPH
1217 - Which types of molecules are synthesized in light-independent (dark) reactions?
carbohydrates
1218 - Photon of light of higher wavelength has _____________ energy.
lower
1219 - Pigments absorb light of particular wavelengths.
TRUE
1220 - Which part of the chlorophyll is responsible for absorption of light?
porphyrin ring
1221 - Which atoms are present in the porphyrin of a chlorophyll molecule?
magnesium
1222 - What are carotenoids?
pigments
1223 - Carotenoids dissipate absorbed energy as heat.
TRUE
1224 - Which of the following type of spectrum is a plot of efficiency of different types of wavelengths in bringing about the photosynthesis?
action spectrum
1225 - Which of the following contains a linear system of conjugated double bonds?
β-carotene
1226 - Which of the following together represent an endomembrane system?
cytoplasmic structures
1227 - Organelles of the endomembrane system are stable and static.
FALSE
1228 - Proteins are synthesized in which of the following organelle of the endomembrane system?
Endoplasmic reticulum
1229 - There are ______ types of secretory activities of a cell.
two
1230 - In regulated secretion, materials are __________
stored
1231 - Which type of endomembrane secretion occurs in nerve cells?
regulatory
1232 - What of the following molecules is not transported through the secretory pathway of endomembrane system?
nucleic acids
1233 - In the endocytic pathway, materials are discharged from the cell.
FALSE
1234 - Which of the following biomolecules are contained in the lysosomes?
proteins
1235 - Which type of signals direct the proteins to their appropriate cellular destinations?
sorting signals
1236 - Proteome is a ____________
An inventory of the total amount of proteins
1237 - Which of the following is not a protein denaturant?
Acetic acid
1238 - Which of the following is untrue?
Protein folding occurs in Golgi bodies
1239 - RNA does not have the nitrogen base of _______
Thymine
1240 - Which of the following is functionally the odd one out?
snRNA
1241 - Which of the following RNA is artificially made?
scRNA
1242 - In RNA transcription, which of the following is a part of TBP-associated factor (TAF)?
TFIID
1243 - Those part of the DNA or gene that contribute to the mRNA product is called _________
Exons
1244 - Which of the following disaccharides have beta (1->4) bond?
Lactose and Cellobiose
1245 - An example of polar but uncharged amino acid is ___________
Serine
1246 - Example of a polar amino acid is ____________
Glutamine
1247 - Why are enzymes required?
Enzymes decrease the activation energy of the reaction
1248 - Competitive enzyme inhibitors are ________
Reversible inhibitors
1249 - Which of the following is a non-competitive inhibitor against protease produced by HIV?
Tipranavir
1250 - Allosteric enzymes are which _______
Have multiple subunits
1251 - Feedback inhibition occurs due to _______
Increase in product to a certain level
1252 - Enzymes that transfer the phosphate group from one protein to another is called _____
Kinase
1253 - The enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a proton from a reactant to NAD+ is known as ______
Dehydrogenase
1254 - The functions of ATP are ___________
All of the mentioned
1255 - In anaerobic respiration, pyruvic acid is converted to _______
Lactate
1256 - The cofactor in Haber’s process is __________
Molybdenum
1257 - TEM and SEM are the same microscopy techniques.
FALSE
1258 - The resolving power of TEM is derived from _______________
electrons
1259 - The cathode of transmission electron microscope consists of a ____________________
tungsten wire
1260 - The resolution attainable with standard TEM is less than the theoretical value.
TRUE
1261 - During TEM, a vacuum is created inside the _________________________
column
1262 - Which of the following component of TEM focuses the beam of electrons on the sample?
condenser lens
1263 - Image formation in electron microscope is based on ___________________________
differential scattering
1264 - The biological materials have little intrinsic capability to ____________________
scatter electrons
1265 - Glutaraldehyde is a ________________
fixative
1266 - Osmium is a ___________________
heavy metal
1267 - In TEM, the tissue is stained by floating on drops of ______________________
heavy metal soutions
1268 - Shadow casting is a technique of visualizing ___________________
isolated particles
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