Virology Biology topic based MCQs preparation test for all competitive exam. Virology Biology Chapter# 25, topic based MCQs that are mostly asked in competitive exam related to Biology. Examtry team design a series of MCQs based tests that effectively and efficiently help a student or job seeker to prepare their exam effectively and efficiently.
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1 - The genome of picornavirus consists of _____________ protein linked to its 5' end.
VPg
2 - Which of the following viruses multiply in the nose?
Rhinovirus
3 - The size of the genome of togavirus is _____________
11 - 12 kb
4 - Which of the following virus is spread by Anopheles funestus?
O'nyong-nyong virus
5 - Mayaro viruses are spread by _______________
Haemagogus
6 - Vero cells are used to culture rubella virus.
TRUE
7 - The vertebrate reservoir of the chikungunya virus is monkeys.
TRUE
8 - The order of enterobacteria phage T4 is _____________
Caudovirales
9 - Which of the following virus belongs to Nidovirales order?
SARS
10 - The suffix used for subfamily is ____________
virinae
11 - Human BK virus belongs to the family ____________
papovaviridae
12 - Sicilian virus belongs to the family _____________
Bunyaviridae
13 - Which of the following virus contains ssRNA genome and enveloped virions without DNA step in the replication cycle?
Sindbis virus
14 - Which of the following virus contains the dsRNA genome?
Colorado tick fever virus
15 - Which of the following virus contains dsDNA with enveloped virions?
Yabapox virus
16 - Kemerovo virus belongs to the genus ____________
Orbivirus
17 - The order is the largest taxonomic group.
TRUE
18 - The binomial nomenclature rules to write the genus name always first.
TRUE
19 - The poliovirus infection is spread through _____________
fecal-oral route
20 - Which of the following complications occur during the infection of poliovirus?
Kidney failure
21 - Which of the following is not the laboratory diagnosis of poliovirus?
IgA antibodies in sera
22 - Which of the following causes the paralysis of respiratory and pharyngeal muscles?
Bulbar poliomyelitis
23 - Which of the following is called Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Polyradiculitis
24 - Which of the following occurs during the acute stages of poliovirus infection?
Encephalitis
25 - The genome of poliovirus is _____________
ssRNA
26 - Polioviruses are ______________
resistant to lipid solvents
27 - Which of the following is the most widely used vaccine for the prevention of poliomyelitis?
OPV
28 - VP3 is a capsid protein.
TRUE
29 - IPV is an inactivated virus vaccine.
TRUE
30 - Who discovered viruses?
Iwanowski
31 - Who reported the cell-free transmission of chicken leukemia?
Ellerman and Bang
32 - The bacteriophages were discovered by ____________
Twort
33 - The one-step growth curve was used to study ____________
the multiplication of viruses
34 - Which of the following is not the phase of the one-step growth curve?
Luteal phase
35 - Which of the following phase measures the period before the infectious virus is released into the medium?
Latent phase
36 - Who isolated TMV in paracrystalline form?
Stanley
37 - The genetic material of bacteriophage T2 is __________
DNA
38 - Viruses do not have a protein coat.
FALSE
39 - Which of the following phase determines the specificity of the virus?
Attachment
40 - Virus possesses spikes composed of carbohydrates.
FALSE
41 - Which of the following viruses are best known for latent infections?
Herpesvirus
42 - The bacteria carrying the phage DNA are called ________________
lysogens
43 - The single-stranded regions in lambda phage are called _______________ sequences.
cos
44 - Which of the following is a recombination site in the phage DNA?
att P
45 - The critical component in the SOS response is ______________
Rec A
46 - LATs are _____________
introns
47 - The delayed infection of EBV causes _____________
glandular fever
48 - The primary acute infection caused by HSV-1 is _____________
stomatitis
49 - The site of latency for CMV is ____________
Salivary glands
50 - Temperate phage can adopt only the lytic or replication cycle.
FALSE
51 - Rec A protein prevents the accumulation of cI protein.
TRUE
52 - Which of the following is the local symptom of mumps?
Swelling of salivary glands
53 - Who observed the infection of the CNS due to mumps virus?
Hamilton
54 - The mumps virus belongs to the genus ______________
Rubulavirus
55 - Which of the following is a canine parainfluenza virus?
SV5
56 - Which of the following does not inactivates or harms mumps virus?
Water
57 - Which of the following protein has RdRp polymerase activity?
L
58 - Which of the following protein contains the cysteine-rich domain?
NS1
59 - Which of the following is a very rare medical condition of mumps virus infection?
Permanent deafness
60 - Which of the following is a hydrophobic protein?
Matrix
61 - The mumps virus a monotypic virus.
TRUE
62 - The mumps virus is transmitted by saliva.
TRUE
63 - Which of the following agent targets ligand on virion?
Disoxaril
64 - Who developed a prodrug that depends on a viral enzyme to convert into its active form?
Elion
65 - The chemical name of acycloguanosine is ____________
9-(2-hydroxyethoxymethyl) guanine
66 - Ribavirin was first synthesized in __________
1972
67 - Which of the following blocks the DNA polymerase of the herpes virus?
Trisodium phosphonoformate
68 - Endosomes are involved in uncoating of the incoming virion.
TRUE
69 - Interferons are more effective orally.
FALSE
70 - Which of the following forms the terminal moiety of a carbohydrate group of a glycoprotein?
N-acetyl neuraminic acid
71 - Which of the following molecule is used as a receptor by Rhinoviruses?
ICAM-1
72 - Which of the following virus does not use the CXCR4 molecule as a receptor?
Poliovirus
73 - Which of the following is a type of coreceptor molecule?
Heparan sulfate
74 - The fusion of ___________ and ____________ occurs during the entry of viral genome into the cell.
lipid bilayer and plasma membrane
75 - Which of the following organelle prevents the entry of viruses in plant cells?
Cell wall
76 - The presence of O-specific side chains makes a cell sensitive to _____________
P22
77 - Which of the following compound inhibits the entry of the HIV-1 virus?
Enfuvirtide
78 - The entry of picornaviruses is inhibited by zanamivir.
FALSE
79 - Which of the following protein helps in the removal of primers in SV40 replication?
RNase H
80 - DNA ligase has the function the same as a fevicol.
TRUE
81 - Who described the first human retrovirus?
Bob Gallo
82 - The virions of retrovirus are ___________
spherical
83 - Which of the following gene activates the expression of all of its genes as well as certain cellular genes?
lax
84 - Which of the following is the demyelination of the long motor neuron tracts in the spinal cord?
TSP
85 - Which of the following causes AIDS in rhesus monkeys?
SIV
86 - The Human Spumavirus contains oncogene.
FALSE
87 - The genome of Hepadnavirus is _______________
circular dsDNA
88 - Which of the following is also known as Deltavirus?
Hepatitis D
89 - Who detected the novel antigen delta?
Rizzetto
90 - The virion of Deltavirus is heterogeneous.
TRUE
91 - Influenza virus belongs to the family _____________
Orthomyxoviridae
92 - The variation of which of the following causes influenza despite vaccines available?
Hemagglutinin
93 - Influenza viruses of human are spread by _______________
sneezing
94 - From which of the following the first influenza virus isolated?
Pig
95 - Influenza B viruses infects only _______________
humans
96 - Which of the following influenza virus contain seven RNA segments?
Influenza C
97 - Which of the following was the first parainfluenza virus isolated?
Sendai virus
98 - Which of the following protein mediates the fusion of virion and host-cell surface membranes?
F
99 - Which of the following protein initiates the process of infection?
HN
100 - The F proteins are synthesized as active precursors.
FALSE
101 - The human parainfluenza viruses are communicable.
TRUE
102 - The reinfection from respiratory syncytial virus is called _____________
URTI
103 - The RSV virus belongs to the genus __________
Pneumovirus
104 - The RSV virus contains ___________ genome.
ssRNA
105 - Which of the following receptor molecule is used by genus Morbilliviruses?
SLAM
106 - Which of the protein supports measle virus replication and transcription?
P
107 - Which of the following protein counteract the innate response?
V
108 - Which of the following is the hallmark of MV infection?
Multinucleated giant cells
109 - Which of the following antibody initially responds to MV virus infection?
IgM
110 - Which of the following causes German measles?
Rubella
111 - Rubella virions are susceptible to aldehyde.
TRUE
112 - RT-PCR is used to detect rubella virus in saliva.
TRUE
113 - Viruses, outside their host cells, survive as ____________
virions
114 - The viral genome is packaged into a structure made of ______________
protein
115 - Which of the following is not the category of virus genome?
tsDNA
116 - Most of the plant viruses have ____________
ssRNA
117 - Which of the following organism contains the largest genome size?
Mimivirus
118 - Which of the following virus possess a single-stranded, linear genome?
TMV
119 - Which of the following is the most common capsid shape of the virus?
Icosahedron
120 - The number of subunits in a virus particle is given by _________
T = Pf2
121 - Which of the following virus have virions with internal lipid membranes?
Iridovirus
122 - The viral envelope is made up of protein bilayer.
FALSE
123 - The viral genome contains non-repeated sequences.
FALSE
124 - Which of the following is not the part of Koch's postulate?
The microorganism secretes toxin in culture
125 - Which of the following is not the criteria for the classification of virus-host interactions?
Size of the virus
126 - Which of the following infection is specific to only cell and not the whole organism?
Null
127 - In which of the following infection the infecting dose of virus is small?
Acute
128 - Influenza virus infects _______________
respiratory system
129 - Which of the following is also known as a silent infection?
Subclinical
130 - Human Papillomavirus causes the cancer of ___________
cervix
131 - Cell lysis is associated with necrosis.
TRUE
132 - T cells are the main defense against primary infections.
TRUE
133 - Which of the following virus causes the cancer of lymphoid tissue of the jaw?
EBV
134 - Which of the following antibody is present in breast milk?
IgA
135 - Which of the following is the study of the distribution of disease in populations?
Epidemiology
136 - The comparison of disease experienced in different population is expressed in the forms of __________
rates
137 - Which of the following rate is the measure of frequency over time?
Attack
138 - Which of the following is the sudden occurrence of disease in a community?
Outbreak
139 - Which term can be used for the meningococcal infection attack rate above 15 cases per 100,000 people for 2 consecutive weeks?
Epidemic
140 - Which of the following term is used for a disease found among a group of people?
Endemic
141 - Which of the following occurs over a large area such as entire countries or continents?
Pandemic
142 - Which of the following is the aggregation of two or more epidemics?
Syndemic
143 - Which of the following is used in public health operations and research?
Seroepidemiology
144 - Indirect transmission occurs via fomites.
TRUE
145 - The epidemiologic investigation of disease is done by geoepidemiology.
FALSE
146 - The infectivity of orthoreovirus can be increased by __________
increasing the exposure to proteolytic enzymes
147 - The rotaviruses were discovered in ____________
Australia
148 - Which of the following is the common clinical feature of infection caused by rotavirus?
Asymptomatic infection
149 - The capsomers of Orbivirus are ___________
ring-shaped
150 - When was the first reovirus isolated?
1951
151 - The Puumala virus belongs to the genus _____________
Hantavirus
152 - Which of the following belongs to the Bunyavirus genera?
Oropouche
153 - Which of the following cannot detect the growth of Bunyavirus in cultured cells?
PCR
154 - Which of the following is used to screen the population of antibodies?
Serology
155 - The replication of Bunyavirus takes place in mitochondria.
FALSE
156 - The Bunyaviridae is a family of RNA viruses.
TRUE
157 - The herpesvirus virion's inner core is surrounded by ____________
icosahedral capsid
158 - The herpes virus contains __________ genome.
linear dsDNA
159 - Which of the following subfamily contains the Epstein-Barr virus?
Gammaherpesviridae
160 - Which of the following glycoprotein prevents the primary infection from the HSV?
gB
161 - Which of the following glycoprotein forms the receptor for the Fc domain of IgG antibody?
gE
162 - The Epstein-Barr virus replicates in the epithelial cells of the _______________
salivary glands
163 - Which of the following poxvirus causes Milker's nodes?
Parapoxvirus
164 - Which of the following disease is caused by Orthopoxvirus?
Monkeypox
165 - Which of the following virus is ether-sensitive?
Parapoxvirus
166 - Tanapox is a skin infection of humans.
TRUE
167 - The poxvirus possesses dsRNA as its genome.
FALSE
168 - The prion diseases are known as _____________
TSEs
169 - The prions contain ______________
proteins
170 - The prion protein in human is encoded by __________ gene.
Prnp
171 - The normal protein form of prion is designated as _____________
PrPc
172 - Which of the following is the prion disease of sheep and goats?
Scrapie
173 - Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathies was first reported in _____________
1986
174 - Which of the following is a spontaneous human prion disease?
Sporadic CJD
175 - Which of the following is an acquired prion disease in humans?
vCJD
176 - FSE is the prion disease of domestic cats.
TRUE
177 - GSS is the disease of _____________
humans
178 - PrPres is the designated form of the misfolded prion protein.
TRUE
179 - HIV-1 was first known as ___________
LAV
180 - Which of the following therapy is used to halt HIV replication?
HAART therapy
181 - HAART was discovered in __________
1994
182 - HIV-1 is a member of __________ family.
retroviridae
183 - Which of the following member of the lentivirus family causes pneumonia?
Visna-Maedi
184 - Which of the following member of the lentivirus family causes anemia?
Anemia
185 - Tat _________
upregulates transcription
186 - Which of the following is a pleiotropic regulator?
Nef
187 - HIV is not transmitted through ____________
saliva
188 - HIV-1 is haploid.
FALSE
189 - M-tropic viruses infect only CD4+ macrophages and not T cells.
FALSE
190 - The Parvoviridae viruses contain ___________ as their genome.
ssDNA
191 - The replication of parvovirus genome occurs in ___________
nucleus
192 - The parvovirus B19 belongs to the genus _____________
Erythrovirus
193 - Which of the following is also known as “fifth disease�
Erythema infectiosum
194 - Which of the following viruses help dependovirus for replication?
Adenovirus
195 - The Papovaviridae consists of _______________ genome.
circular dsDNA
196 - Which of the following virus infects most children before the age of 10?
BK polyomavirus
197 - Which of the following is the demyelinating disease of the CNS?
PML
198 - Which of the following has served as the gold standard for the identification of the HPV genome?
Southern Blot Hybridization
199 - The second route of transmission of parvovirus B19 is transplacental.
TRUE
200 - Dependovirus does not cause any disease.
TRUE
201 - Which of the following is not a property of an ideal vaccine?
It should have private support
202 - The process of producing a virus which causes a reduced amount of disease for use as a live vaccine is called ________________
attenuation
203 - Which of the following vaccine contains a mutant strain of a virus that has been derived from a wild-type virulent strain?
Live attenuated virus vaccines
204 - Which of the following viruses are made by the mass production of virulent viruses?
Inactivated virus vaccines
205 - Who developed the treatment for poliovirus?
Jonas Salk
206 - Which of the following is used to treat rubella?
MMR
207 - Which of the following antiviral drug is used to treat the infection from herpes simplex virus?
Aciclovir
208 - Which of the following is used to treat the infection from cytomegalovirus?
Dideoxycytidine
209 - Which of the following is used in the treatment of infection from RNA viruses?
Ribavirin
210 - Lamivudine is an analog of cytidine.
TRUE
211 - Neuraminidase is a surface protein of the influenza A virus.
TRUE
212 - Which of the following factor does not contribute to virus-associated oncogenesis?
Height
213 - Which of the following enzyme maintains the ends of the chromosome?
Telomerase
214 - Which of the following may occur due to transformation?
Mutation
215 - Oncogenes are ______________
cancer genes
216 - Which of the following causes Kaposi's sarcoma?
HHV-8
217 - Which of the following causes warts?
Bovine papilloma type 4
218 - Which of the following protein is synthesized by human papilloma for cell transformation?
E6
219 - Which of the following protein can fully transform the baby rat kidney (BRK) cells alone?
Large T antigen of SV40
220 - ATL is a tumor of ___________
CD4
221 - Carcinoma is the cancer of lymphoid tissue.
FALSE
222 - Benign tumor invades into other tissues.
FALSE
223 - Which of the following protein recognizes MHC class I proteins?
CD8
224 - Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
Bone marrow
225 - T cells mature in ______________
thymus
226 - Hematopoiesis occurs in ______________
Bone marrow
227 - Which of the following controls the release of hematopoietic cells from bone marrow?
Sympathetic neurons
228 - Which of the following is not part of the mononuclear phagocyte system?
Endothelial cells
229 - Which of the following cells form NET and perform phagocytosis?
Neutrophils
230 - Which of the following is not an APC cell?
Keratinocytes
231 - Which of the following is an abundant class of antibody in the serum?
IgG
232 - IgM antibody exists as a pentamer.
TRUE
233 - Cytokines coordinate the immune system.
TRUE
234 - Which of the following antiviral drug is used to treat influenza A?
Amantadine
235 - Which of the following is used to treat eye infection?
TFT
236 - Which of the following is not used in the HIV-1 treatment?
Rimantadine
237 - Which of the following is used to treat CMV infections?
Foscarnet
238 - Which of the following is used to treat poxvirus?
Cidofovir
239 - Which of the following is used to treat genital herpes infections?
Penciclovir
240 - Which of the following is easily blocked by antivirals?
Nucleic acid replication
241 - Why antiviral drugs cannot cure HIV?
They cannot block viral transcription
242 - Which of the following cannot be treated by antiviral drugs?
Tuberculosis
243 - The mutations in the M2 gene is responsible for drug resistance in influenza A virus.
TRUE
244 - Relenza is an anti-influenza drug.
TRUE
245 - The assembly of virion of papillomavirus occurs in the ___________
nucleus
246 - Which of the following is the disease of the skin caused by papillomaviruses?
Flat wart
247 - Which of the following is a genital tract infection?
Condyloma acuminatum
248 - CMI plays a role in combating HPV infections.
TRUE
249 - Cervarix is highly effective in preventing HPV infections.
TRUE
250 - Which of the following is the cause of a common cold?
Rhinovirus
251 - The rhinovirus cannot be isolated from ____________
fecal
252 - The rhinovirus contains _________ as their genome.
ssRNA
253 - The nucleotides of the 5'-UTR forms a _____________
leaf-like structure
254 - The replication of rhinovirus takes place in __________
cytoplasm
255 - Which of the following is the main portal for HRV entry into the body?
Nose
256 - The group 2a viruses have additional ______________
structural protein
257 - Which of the following glycoprotein is the most abundant in virions?
M
258 - The common sequence at the beginning of each gene in coronavirus is ____________
CUUAACAA
259 - The Coronaviruses have double-stranded DNA as their genome.
FALSE
260 - The S protein in coronavirus is cleaved into seven subunits.
FALSE
261 - The hepatitis C virus was discovered in __________
1989
262 - The Flavivirus consists of ____________ as its genome.
ssRNA
263 - The proliferation of flavivirus is accompanied by the _____________
endoplasmic reticulum
264 - In which of the following case the virus replicates in Kupffer cells?
Yellow fever
265 - Which of the following virus is maintained in a Culex - bird cycle?
West Nile virus
266 - The size of HCV genome is _____________
9.5 kb
267 - The filoviruses are classified as __________________ pathogens.
Biosafety level 4
268 - The filovirus replication is marked by the formation of inclusion bodies.
TRUE
269 - The virions of the Filoviridae members are composed of lipid bilayers.
TRUE
270 - Which of the following virus targets eyes?
Mastadenovirus
271 - Which of the following virus infects the gastrointestinal tract?
Norwalk virus
272 - Coxsackie B virus has major target organ as ______________
heart
273 - Which of the following virus causes blunting of the villi?
Rotavirus
274 - Which of the following virus promotes sneezing?
Rhinovirus
275 - Which of the following virus infects the lower respiratory tract?
Norwalk virus
276 - Which of the following factor does not affect the incidence of viral disease?
Temperature
277 - Which of the following virus affects the testes?
Mumps virus
278 - Which of the following virus affects the liver?
HAV
279 - The key element in the innate immune response is the production of interferon-alpha/beta.
TRUE
280 - HIV uses CCR5 as a coreceptor for successful infection.
TRUE
281 - Which of the following is the first step for the detection of viral infections?
Collection
282 - The blood is stored between the temperature range of ____________ °C.
44598
283 - Which of the following microscope was used to first identify human rotavirus?
Electron microscope
284 - Which of the following is added to improve the visualization of virions in immunoelectron microscopy?
Gold
285 - Which of the following method is used for the detection of antigen?
EIA
286 - In which of the following method the antibody is labeled with a fluorophore?
TR-FIA
287 - Which of the following method is used for the detection of viral DNA?
Southern blotting
288 - In which of the following method there are chances of DNA contamination?
PCR
289 - In which of the following method the antibody is labeled with HRP?
Immunoperoxidase
290 - CSF is a red color fluid.
TRUE
291 - Sandwich ELISA requires two antibodies.
TRUE
292 - Which of the following is not a category of the method of virus detection?
Hematology
293 - Which of the following is the first cell line derived from a human?
HeLa
294 - Which of the following effect causes changes in the host organism?
Cytopathic effect
295 - Which of the following is important for mitosis to occur?
Serum
296 - The hybridoma technology is used for the production of ___________
MAbs
297 - Which of the following is not the step of viral genome amplification?
Expansion
298 - PCR was devised by ____________
Kary Mullis
299 - Taq polymerase is isolated from ____________
Thermus aquaticus
300 - ELISA is used for the detection of viral diseases.
TRUE
301 - Cell lines are the type of cell culture.
TRUE
302 - Which of the following PCR is used for the conversion of RNA to DNA?
RT-PCR
303 - Which of the following is not a horizontal transmission route?
Placental
304 - Which of the following virus is transmitted through the respiratory route?
Rhinovirus
305 - Which of the following virus is transmitted via urine?
Lassa fever virus
306 - Which of the following phylum acts as a vector for virus transmission?
Arthropods
307 - The viruses spread by arthropods are known as ____________
Arbovirus
308 - Which of the following is an example of a vertically transmitted virus?
Rubella virus
309 - Which of the following virus undergoes zoonotic transmission?
Rhabdovirus
310 - Which of the following virus belongs to the poxvirus family?
Myxoma
311 - Influenza A virus was discovered in ______________
1933
312 - Influenza B undergoes more drift than influenza A viruses.
FALSE
313 - The mucus prevents viral attachment on cells.
TRUE
314 - Which of the following is not the type of viral infection?
Meningitis
315 - Which of the following infection is also called as lytic infection?
Cytopathogenic
316 - Which of the following virus promotes cell death by apoptosis?
Rubella virus
317 - Which of the following infection results in the continuous production of viruses?
Persistent
318 - UL37x1 is a protein encoded by ________________
Cytomegalovirus
319 - In which of the following infection no infectious progeny is produced?
Latent
320 - Which of the following infection causes a change in the properties of the cell?
Transforming
321 - Which infection causes a reduction in the total yield of virus particles?
Abortive
322 - In which of the following infection the cells do not have the appropriate receptor for the virus?
Null
323 - Apoptosis regulates cell numbers.
TRUE
324 - The gene bcl-2 prevents apoptosis in normal cells.
TRUE
325 - Replicases are used in _______________
replication
326 - The error rate during RNA replication is approximately _____________
10-3 to 10-5
327 - Which of the following component in genetic control encodes a repressor protein of 236 amino acids?
cI
328 - An antiterminator protein is encoded by ____________
N
329 - Which of the following RNA Polymerase is insensitive to α-amanitin?
Pol I
330 - Which of the following is programmed cell death?
Apoptosis
331 - The gene for Interferon-β is located on _______________
chromosome 9
332 - The active form of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is a ________________
dimer
333 - Which of the following surface molecule is used by the Coxsackie B virus as a receptor?
CAR
334 - The gene for Interferon-gamma is located on chromosome 18.
FALSE
335 - Interferon-α is synthesized by lymphocytes.
TRUE
336 - Which of the following has responsibility for the assignment of new viruses to specific groupings?
ICTV
337 - Which of the following virus causes shingles when it is reactivated?
Varicella zoster
338 - Which of the following viruses are icosahedrons?
Isometric virus
339 - The Baltimore classification was based on the importance of ____________
mRNA
340 - Which of the following class contains all viruses that have dsDNA genomes?
Class I
341 - Class III of Baltimore classification contains viruses with __________
dsRNA
342 - Which of the following class consists of ambisense viruses?
Class 5
343 - In which year was ICTV established?
1966
344 - Measles virus belong to the family ______________
Paramoxyviridae
345 - Satellite viruses do not encode enzymes for replication.
TRUE
346 - Viruses are larger than prions.
TRUE
347 - The Coxsackie viruses were discovered in the late _____________
1940s
348 - Which of the following induce polio-like paralysis in the monkey?
CVA7
349 - CVA9 uses ____________ as a host cell receptor.
αvβ3
350 - Which of the following is associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?
CVA24
351 - Which of the following is higher in patients than in controls in case of acute myocarditis?
IgM
352 - Which of the following is called Bornholm disease?
Pleurodynia
353 - Which of these is mainly seen in children?
Herpangina
354 - Which of the following is a disease caused by echovirus infection?
Rashes
355 - The echovirus possesses _____________ as their genome.
ssRNA
356 - Echovirus is resistant to lipid solvents.
TRUE
357 - Inoculation of coxsackievirus in mice will lead to death.
TRUE
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