Maximization of Profit, Firm Competion and Monopoly, Pricing, Great Economists, Banking and Trade and Business Finance MCQs

1 - Who succeeded Alfred Marshall as Professor of Political Economy at Cambridge?






A.C.Pigou

2 - Which one among the following does not match?






W.S. Jevons - Historical School

3 - Identify the Indian economist who was given an honorary knighthood by the British Government in 1990 for his wide-ranging contribution to education, development economics and finance:






I.G.Patel

4 - Identify the author of "Poverty Under British Rule in India":






Dadabhai Naoroji

5 - Capital and Development Planning is the work of:






S. Chakravarty

6 - Who is the author of "Choice of Technique"?






Amartya Sen

7 - Identify the author of "Employment Aspects of Planning in Underdeveloped Countries":






K.N.Raj

8 - Identify the author of "The Trade Cycle":






R.C.Mathews

9 - The theory of Monopolistic Competition was developed in the 1930s. Almost simultaneously and independently by two well-known economists. One was E.H.Chamberlin who was the other?






Joan Robinson

10 - Which of the following is not the work of J.A.Schumpeter?






Readings in Economics

11 - Who is the author Capitalism, Yesterday and Today?






M.Dobb

12 - Identify the work by Amartya Sen:






Employment, Technology and Development

13 - Identify the nationality of the 1977 Economics Noble Prize winner Bertil Ohlion:






Swedish

14 - Which one of the following has been the most influential work of F.H.Knight?






Risk, Unertainty and Profit

15 - Who first formulated the Revealed Preference Approach to free the theory of consumer behaviour from the constraint of traditional concept of utility?






Paul A.Samuelson

16 - Which of the following is the work of E.H, Chamberlin?






All of these

17 - Identify the author of "The Social Framework":






J.R.Hicks

18 - Who in particular advocated the longterm capital gains tax?






N.Kaldor

19 - Which of the following is the work of Paul Baran?






The Political Economy of Growth

20 - With which of the following is the name of Jacob Viner associated?






Single factoral terms of trade

21 - Who first formulated the "Marginal Productivity theory of Distribution"?






J.B.Clark

22 - Which one of the following is the work of A.C.Pigou?






Economics of Welfare

23 - Who is the author of the famous work "Asian Drama": An Enquiry into the Causes of Poverty of Nations?






Gunnar Myrdal

24 - Who among the following served as Professor of Economics at Harvard?






E.H.Chamberlin

25 - The Cambridge School refers to the group of English economists who came under the influence of:






Alfred Marshall

26 - "The Modern or Neo-Keynesian Theory of Interest" owes it development largely to the efforts of:






J.R.Hicks

27 - Who wrote "Economics of Imperfect Competition"?






John Robinson

28 - Gunnar Myrdal was awarded Noble Prize for Economics in 19






Dutch

29 - Who stated explicitly for the first time the Law of Comparative Costs in the context of the theory of international trade?






David Ricardo

30 - With which of the following concepts is the name of J.M. Keynes particularly associated?






All of the above

31 - Identify the author of "The Affluent Society":






J.K.Galbraith

32 - Who wrote "A Contribution to the Theory of Trade Cycle"?






J.R.Hicks

33 - Which is the work of R.F.Harrod?






The Gold Standard in Theory and Practice

34 - Who among the following Noble Prize winners is an American economist?






Lawerence Klein

35 - "The General theory of Employment, Interest and Money" is the major work of:






J.M.Keynes

36 - At which university was W.W.Leontief appointed Professor of Economics in 1946?






University of Kiel

37 - Who among the following economists is not a Noble Prize winner?






Joan Robinson

38 - Which of the following is not the work of Paul A.Samuelson?






History of Economic Analysis

39 - In which year was Paul A. Samuelson awarded the Nobel Prize for Economics?






1970

40 - Identify the economist who first developed the Theory of Income Determination in its modern form:






J.M.Keynes

41 - How many economists were awarded the Nobel Prize for Economics in 1990?






Three

42 - Which one of the following approaches to the definition of money gives the widest possible view of money?






Central bank approach

43 - The best example of representative full-bodied money is found in the 'gold certificates' which circulated in the U.S.A. before being withdrawn from circulation in:






1933

44 - Which of the following is not a function of money?






Stabilization of price level

45 - Money has been defined as 'that by delivery of which debt contracts and price contracts are discharged, and in the the shape of which general purchasing power is held'. Whole definition is this?






J.M.Keynes

46 - Fiat money refers to:






Legal money

47 - Which one of the following is an example of quasi-money or near-money?






Bills of exchange

48 - When the commodity value of money and its value as money are equal, it is called:






Full-bodied money

49 - The limited legal-tender money stands for the component of money which:






Is legal tender for payment upto a certain maximum amount

50 - As compared to the classical theory, which function of money was stressed more in the Keynesian theory?






Store of value

51 - Bad money drives good money out of circulation. With whole name is this law associated?






Thomas Gresham

52 - Identify the country which was the first to adopt the gold standard:






UK

53 - During which decade of the nineteenth century did most European countries adopt the gold standard?






Eighties

54 - When did the UK finally abandon the gold standard?






1931

55 - Who is generally regarded as the founder of the Modern Quantity Theory of Money?






Milton Friedman

56 - The Quantity Theory of Money establishes the relationship between quantity of money in an economy and the level of:






Prices

57 - Identify Pigou's cash balances equation:






M = KR/P

58 - In the Fisher's equation of exchange MV = PT, what does T denote?






Volume of trade

59 - Cost-push inflation is caused by:






Increase in the prices of inputs

60 - Who introduced the concept of the real balance effect?






A.C.Pigou

61 - Which of the following according to Milton Friedman is not a key determinant of the demand for money?






Precautionary motive

62 - The cash transactions approach to the quantity theory of money is usually associated with the name of:






Irving Fisher

63 - The relationship between the market rate of interest and the market price of a bond is:






Inverse

64 - The degree of elasticity in respect of speculative demand for money, under the liquidity trap conditions, is:






Infinite

65 - A retail price index is a good measure of changes in:






Consumers' cost of living

66 - Which of the following is not an instrument of monetary policy?






Taxation

67 - At a very low rate of interest, the interest-elasticity of the speculative demand for money becomes:






Infinite

68 - The liquidity trap condition occurs at a:






Very low rate of interest

69 - In which capacity does a person stand to gain from deflation?






As a pensioner

70 - According to the classical approach, the demand for money primarily depends upon:






Economic transactions

71 - Which of the following measures is helpful in controlling inflation?






All of the above

72 - During the period of hyper-inflation, there takes place astronomical rise in prices and, as a result, money becomes almost worthless. Such a situation was witnessed in Germany in 1923 and in China in:






1949

73 - Stagflation refers to a situation which is characterised by:






Sustained price-rise and rising unemployment

74 - The first explanation of stagflation was offered originally in 1931 by:






Friedrich A.von Hayek

75 - The reduction or elimination of inflation is known as:






Disinflation

76 - Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?






Banker to the Government

77 - Which of the following is not a liability of commercial banks?






Security holdings

78 - Which is not a function of the central bank of a country?






Supervisor of nation's fiscal policy

79 - Under the unit banking system, each individual bank is a separate entity having its own independent management and board of directors. Which country is generally regarded as the home of the unit banking system?






USA

80 - The branch banking system is currently in vogue in most countries of the world. Identify the country where it first developed:






UK

81 - The china banking system a variant of the group banking system, developed around the mid-nineteenth century and reaching the apex of popularity in the present century. In which country did it develop?






USA

82 - In which country was the instrument of minimum legal cash reserves ratio for banks first introduced?






USA

83 - Which of the following is not a part of the un-organised Indian money market?






Co-operative credit societies

84 - Which one of the following will reduce the capacity of commercial banks to lend?






Sales of securities in the open market by the central bank

85 - If there is a significant decrease in the demand for loans, banks will be forced to:






Adjust their protfolios

86 - Open market operations refer to the buying and selling of:






Government securities

87 - Bank rate refer to the interest rate at which:






Central bank gives loans to commercial banks

88 - The immediate effect of credit-creation by banks is:






Increase in money supply

89 - Selective credit control devices are used by the central bank of a country to:






Control the flow of aggregate bank credit to different productive activities in the economy

90 - In a bimetallic standard:






All of the above

91 - One of the following is an instrument of qualitative credit control. Identify it:






Credit rationing

92 - Which of the following is an instrument of quantitative credit control?






Variable reserve ratio

93 - Arrange the following assets of a bank in the ascending order of income (i.e. in the descending order of liquidity): I-Bills; II-Loans; III-In-vestments in Government and other approved securities






I,III,II

94 - Which of the following is not an item on the assets side of the balance sheet of a commercial bank?






Reserves

95 - Commercial banks have always to face a conflict between:






Liquidity and profitability

96 - The main function of legal cash reserve requirements is to:






Influence the demand deposit-creating power of commercial banks

97 - Since when has the Reserve Bank of India been successfully operating the instrument of selective credit control in this country?






1956

98 - Identify the country, which first employed credit rationing as an instrument of credit control:






France

99 - The 'terms of trade' refer to:






Ratio of the index of export prices to the index of import prices.

100 - By which year had the gold standard virtually disappeared from the world as an international monetary system?






1936

101 - The market for very short term loans is known as:






Money market

102 - If the increase in exports exceeds the increase in imports, and other things remain the same, then the level of income will:






Rise

103 - Which of the following was not favoured by the mercantilists?






Free trade

104 - Of the following concepts of term of trade, which one was introduced by F.W. Taussig?






Commodity terms of trade

105 - Dynamic factors in the realm of international trade theory relate to changes in:






All of the above

106 - The devaluation of currency by a country is designed to lead to:






All of these

107 - What would be the impact on the country's balance of payments position, when in the context of inflationary pressures recourse is taken to expenditure reducing policies?






Favourable

108 - Which of the following items in the balance of payments is invisible?






Foreign travel

109 - If the elasticity of foreign demand for the country's exports is unity, the supply curve of foreign exchange will be:






Vertical

110 - A deficit disequilibrium in the balance of payments can be corrected through:






All of the above

111 - The spot and forward markets in foreign exchange are linked to each other through:






All of the above

112 - What does the modern theory of international trade predict regarding difference in factor prices between nations on account of trade? The difference:






Diminishes

113 - The multiple exchange rates were first employed by:






Germany

114 - Which of the following statements is not correct?






Devaluation can have only temporary effects and it may provoke other countries to retaliate

115 - Under the flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by:






The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market

116 - The elasticity of demand for foreign exchange for financing capital outflow is:






Zero

117 - The foreign exchange market performs the function of:






All of the above

118 - According to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory of international trade the most important cause of differences in relative commodity pries and trade between nations is the differences in:






Factor endowments

119 - On which of the following is the law of comparative costs based?






Labour theory of value

120 - Which among the following, is not an assumption of the classical - territory of comparative cost advantage?






Production takes place under diminishing returns

121 - Developing countries usually complain of:






All of the above

122 - Adam Smith's views on world trade can be best understood if one considers them as a reaction to:






Ricardo's views on trade

123 - What proportion of international trade is based on absolute differences in costs of production?






Substantial

124 - Business can be defined as:






Trade, commerce and industry

125 - What can be the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm?






20

126 - Which form of business organisation would be most suitable for a capital intensive business?






Joint-stock company

127 - According to the systems approach, a system is the:






Orderly arrangement of its components in a coordinated manner

128 - A business organistion has constant and invisible interaction with its:






External environment

129 - The asset limit above which a company or group would be covered under the MRTP in India for concentration of economic power is:






Rs 100 crore

130 - Which one of the following refers to 'factoring services'?






Guaranteeing realisation from debtors

131 - A consumer complaint is registered by the MRTP Commission in India on a complaint made by at least:






25 consumers

132 - Vertical combination implies:






Integration of enterprises engaged in different stages of production of a particular product

133 - An indirect tax is one where:






Points of impact and incidence are different

134 - Which one of the following is an example of indirect tax?






Sales tax

135 - The incidence of tax refers to:






One who bears the ultimate money burden of the tax

136 - Who is generally regarded as the father of modern management?






Henry Fayol

137 - The term Managerical Rovolution refers to the prediction that with the expansion in size of business units, world affairs will eventually be in the hands of a few powerful managers. Who made use of this term?






J.Burnham

138 - The principle of scientific management implies:






Replacement of rules of thumb by scientific principles of management

139 - Objectives in the context of management may be defined as:






The end result, which an organisation tries to attain

140 - The two key factors in 'management by objectives' are:






Democratic goal-setting and verifiable objectives

141 - An informal organisation is one where:






The structure is not prescribed by formal authority

142 - The first level of needs in Maslow's 'need hierarchy is:






Physiological needs

143 - Planning and control are related in such a way that:






Both go hand-in-hand with each other in a cyclical manner

144 - Communication is complete when the:






Message is received and understood by the receiver

145 - A private company must have at least:






2 members

146 - Unless the Articles of Association otherwise provide, the quorum for a general meeting of a public company is:






Five members personally present

147 - A Special resolution is one, which is passed in a general meeting by:






Three-fourth majority of votes

148 - A share warrant can be issued by:






Public companies only

149 - What is the minimum number of shareholders necessary for a public company?






7

150 - The share capital of a company refers to:






Equity and preference share capital

151 - Within how many days of the declaration of divident must divident warrants be posted to shareholders?






42 days

152 - In which year was the Indian Contract Act passed?






1872

153 - Any agreement by a minor which is beneficial to him is a:






Valid contract

154 - The liability of partners in a partnership firm is:






Joint and several

155 - What is the maximum number of partners necessary in a partnership firm carrying on banking business?






5

156 - The suit for specific performance in case of breach of contract may be filed only where the subject matter relates to:






Immovable property

157 - Which one of the following is a void agreement?






Agreement in restraint of trade

158 - Crossing a cheque 'Not Negotiable' affords security against:






The ft of cheque

159 - Non-registration of a partnership does not affect the:






Suit by third parties against the firm

160 - Organisation Theory is concerned with the:






Study to explain the nature and composition of organisations as a social or human group

161 - With which of following is Behavioural Science in management related?






Scientific study of human behaviour

162 - Job-enrichment means:






Change or variation of job after a time perior

163 - An organisation structure refers to the:






Flow of authority and responsibility

164 - Finance is concerned with:






All of the above

165 - Current Ratio is the ratio of:






Current assets to current liabilities

166 - Debt Equity Ratio refers to the ratio of:






Long term debt to shareholders' equity

167 - Trading on eqrity' means:






Use of fixed-interest borrowed funds for getting a higher return on equity

168 - Cost of goods sold refers to:






Sales minus gross profits

169 - In the pay back period method of capital budgeting, investment is divided by:






Constant annual cash flow

170 - The relationship between EBIT and EPS gives:






Financial leverage

171 - Break-even-point is a situation where:






There is no profit no loss

172 - Under-capitalisation refers to a situation where:






The capital base does not justify the amount of earnings made and needs to be enhanced

173 - A schedule of balances drawn from the ledger is called:






A trial balance

174 - Goodwill of a firm represents:






Intangible assets

175 - A bank account is a:






Personal account

176 - Prepaid expenses appearing in a trial balance will figure in the:






Balance sheet

177 - Sale of old furniture on credit will appear in the:






Journal

178 - The excess of current assets over current liabilities is called:






Working capital

179 - Depreciation is the process of:






Allocation of costs

180 - What is the objective of cost accounting?






All of the above

181 - What is Conersion Cost?






Cost of transforming direct materials into finished products

182 - In an integrated costing system, most of the data relevant to cost accounting comes from the:






Financial accounting system

183 - Which method of costing is used by sugar mills?






Process costing

184 - Premium on redemption of debentures is accounted for in the:






Personal account

185 - After debentures are redeemed, the balance in the sinking fund account is transferred to:






General reserve

186 - To the extent redemption of preferece shares takes place out of profits, an equal amount has to be transferred to:






Capital redemption reserve

187 - When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by:






Called-up-amount

188 - The profit on re-issuing forfeited shares is transferred to:






Capital reserve

189 - The share application account is a:






Personal account

190 - The excess of purchase price over net assets is:






Goodwill

191 - In the balance sheet of a company, the items goodwill, patents and trade marks are shown under the heading:






Fixed assets

192 - A preliminary expense is a:






Fictitious asset

193 - Divisible profits do not include:






Profit on revaluation of assets

194 - Advance payment of tax should be shown on the:






Assets side of a balance sheet

195 - Dividends are usually paid on the:






Paid-up capital

196 - Which of the following is not concerned with the valuation of goodwill?






Earning capacity method

197 - When two or more companies dissolve to form a new company, the process is known as:






Amalgamation

198 - Absorption is said to take place when:






Two or more companies dissolve to be taken over by a existing company

199 - For calculating market value using P/E ratios, it is necessary to know:






Earnings per share and market price of the share

200 - The relationship between normal rate of return and P/E ratio is:






Inverse

201 - For a company to carry out capital reduction, permission is required from the:






Competent Court

202 - Any balance in the capital reduction account after writing off lost capital is tansferred to:






Capital reserve

203 - In a scheme of reorganization, the amount of shares surrendered by shareholders is transferred to the:






Capital reduction account

204 - Amounts sacrificed by shareholders are credited to the:






Capital reduction account

205 - At the commencement of winding up, a contributory is a:






Shareholder

206 - The shareholding of the government in a government company must be at least:






0.51

207 - Which of the following is an economic activity?






Medical facilities rendered by a charitable dispensary

208 - Which of the following is closest to the concept of economic production?






Addition to the value of commodities

209 - Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a modern economy?






Diversity in production of commodities

210 - Identify economic stock from among the following:






Bank deposit of a household

211 - Which of the following is an economic flow?






Demand for machinery

212 - A closed economy is one which:






Does not trade with other countries

213 - The traditional economy is characterised by:






Organisation of production for self-consumption

214 - Who among the following is a non-resident of India?






A person of Indian origin working at the World Bank, Washington, DC

215 - Purchase of a ceiling fan by a household is treted in national income accounting as a part of:






Consumption at the time of its purchase

216 - Corporate enterprises refer to:






Business houses that are independent of their owners

217 - Which of the following is not a corporate enterprise?






Municipal Corporation of Delhi

218 - Departmental enterprises are a part of the:






General government

219 - Which of the following is a departmental enterprise of the Government of India?






Indian Railways

220 - In which of the following sectors does production for self-consumption generally take place?






House-holds

221 - Subsistence production refers to:






Production for self-consumption only

222 - Collective wants include:






Defence of a country

223 - Which of the following are durable use producer-goods?






Tractors

224 - Demand for intermediate consumption arises in:






All producing sectors of the economy

225 - Expenditure on the purchase of new replacement parts of machinery installed by a firm is part of:






Intermediate consumption

226 - Which of the following is an expenditure on intermediate consumption?






Purchase of coal by a steel factory

227 - Demand for final consumption arises in:






Both (a) & (b)

228 - Which of the following activities of a farmer is an example of intermediate consumption?






Electricity charges for operating a pump

229 - Imputed rental value of owner occupied dwellings is a part of:






Final consumption

230 - Sale of old newspapers by a household is a part of:






Net final consumption expenditure of the household

231 - Which of the following constitutes a part of domestic fixed capital formation?






Net purchase of second-hand physical assets from abroad

232 - Purchases made by the US Embassy in India are part of:






Exports from India to the USA

233 - Direct purchases abroad made by the government on current account are a part of:






Final consumption

234 - Which of the following is not a part of net investment in an economy?






Purchase of old shares

235 - Which of the following is included in the consumption of fixed capital?






Normal wear and tear machinery while in use

236 - Gross domestic fixed-capital formation does not include:






Net purchase of second hand machinery by private corporate sector from Government

237 - Value of output differs from the value added by the amount of:






Intermediate consumption

238 - The gross fixed investment in an economy during a year is Rs. 200 Crore. The economy possessed Rs 1200 Crore worth of fixed capital at the beginning of the year and the rate of depreciation is 10% per annum. What is the net value of fixed capital stock h






Rs 1280 crore

239 - In consumption of capital is equal to gross fixed investment, then:






Net investment is zero

240 - Which of the following constitutes an investment by a household?






Purchasing a new house

241 - Net value added is equal to:






Payments accruing to factors of production

242 - Addition to the stocks of food grains by the Food Corporation of India is a part of:






Gross capital formation

243 - Mixed income of the self-employed means:






Combined factor payments which are not distinguishable

244 - Operating surplus implies:






Net income from property and entrepreneurship

245 - Operating surplus arises in:






All producing enterprises in the corporate sector

246 - Operating surplus differs from net value added by the amount of:






Compensation of employees

247 - Which of the following is not a part of the compensation of employees?






Payments made to visiting foreign consultant

248 - Identify the item, which is not a factor payment:






Scholarships given to scheduled caste students

249 - Which of the following is an example of factor-income from abroad?






Profits earned by a branch of the State Bank of India in London

250 - Transfer payments refer to payments which are made:






Without any exchange of goods and services

251 - Personal disposable income is:






Equal to personal income minus direct taxes paid by household

252 - If during a year the national income at constant prices goes up by 5%, while prices also rise by 5% and population registers a growth of 2%; then the real per capita income will:






Increase by 3%

253 - National income estimates of India are published both at current and constant prices. What is the base year for constant price estimates published at present?






1980-81

254 - The national income accojnts, direct personal taxes are recorded as:






Receipts of the government sector and payments of the household sector

255 - For which of the following sectors is the income method used for estimation of national income of Pakistan?






Banking and insurance

256 - Identify the sector in respect of which the expenditure method is used for estimating national income in India:






Construction

257 - If GNP at market prices is Rs 1200 crore, and fixed capital stock is worth Rs 2000 crore which depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum and the net indirect taxes amount is Rs 150 crore. What is the national income?






Rs 850 crore

258 - National income differs from the net national product at market prices by the amount of:






It does not differ

259 - If net factor income from abroad is zero, then:






National product is constant

260 - For the estimation of private income which of the following items has to be added to national income?






Interest on national debt

261 - While estimating personal income from national income, which of the following items need to be deducted?






Direct Taxes paid by households

262 - Which of the following has to be added to national income to obtain the net national disposable income?






Loans from public

263 - Net national product at factor cost is :






Equal to national income

264 - Which of the following is deducted while estimating national income by the value-added method?






Consumption of capital

265 - While estimating national income by the income method one of the following is not included. Identify it:






Inheritance tax or death duty

266 - Which of the following is not included while estimating national income by the expenditure methods?






Net indirect tax

267 - The difference between net national product at market prices and net domestic product at market prices is equal to:






Net factor income from abroad

268 - Which of the following accounts for the difference between net domestic product at market prices and national income?






Net factor income from abroad minus indirect taxes

269 - Which of the following has to be deducted from the value of output to arrive at the net value added by a producing enterprise?






All of the above

270 - The value added method of measuring national income is also known as:






All of the above

271 - Net borrowings from abroad are a part of:






Gross investment

272 - Aggregate gross receipts means:






Turnover value of output

273 - The term national income commonly refers to:






NNP at factor cost

274 - Which of the following is an example of transfer payment by the Government?






National debt interest

275 - Transfer receipts of the Government include:






Direct and indirect taxes

276 - Which one is an example of capital transfer within a country?






Compensation to residents whose houses have been damaged by floods

277 - Net retained earnings abroad means:






Net undistributed profits of resident and non-resident companies

278 - Which of the following is not an example of capital transfers between countries?






Gifts for cyclone victims

279 - Interest on public debt is a part of:






Transfer payments by the government

280 - Which of the following is not a government transfer payment to households?






Subsidy

281 - Income from property is a part of:






Operating surplus

282 - Unilateral payments are known as:






Transfer payments

283 - Identify the correct statement:






Personal disposable income excludes direct taxes paid by households

284 - Which of the following includes interest on national debt?






Personal income

285 - Which of the following is incorrect?






None of the above

286 - The first estimate of national income in India was made by Dadabhai Naoroji for the year:






1867-68

287 - Domestic incomes refer to incomes which are generated:






By all the producers within the geographical territory of the country

288 - If the general price level goes up by 12% and national income at constant prices increases by 3%, then the national income at current prices:






Increase by 15%

289 - Gross domestic product differs from net domestic product by the amount of:






Consumption of fixed capital

290 - Which of the following is generally regarded as the true index of economic growth?






A sustained increase in real per capita income

291 - The concept of economic growth is:






Narrower than the concept of economic development

292 - Which of the following is not an indicator of economically underdeveloped countries?






Low proportion of labour force in the primary sector

293 - The rate of growth of an economy mainly depends upon:






All of the above

294 - Among the following determinants of growth, which is a non-economic factor?






Favourable legislation

295 - Besides increase in output, economic development is concerned with:






All of the above

296 - The stationary state as envisaged by Adam Smith, is marked by:






All of the above

297 - Which of the following is inconsistent with Adam Smith's theory of development?






There is no limit to the growth process

298 - The division of labour, according to Adam Smith, is limited by:






Both (a) and (b)

299 - Among the various determinants of the growth of national wealth Adam Smith accorded central place to:






Division of labour

300 - Who put forward the theory of social dualism?






J.H.Boeke

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