Pharmacology Most Important MCQs

1 - 1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route______________?

A. Oral

B. Inhalation

C. Rectal

D. Parental

Oral

2 - A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known a_____________?

A. Biodegradable

B. Bio-experiment

C. Bio-assay

D. Bio-statement

Bio-assay

3 - A child has phocomelia, this impliments his mother had taken which of the following medication during pregnancy______________?

A. Tetracycline

B. Thalidomide

C. Warfarin

D. Chloroquine

Thalidomide

4 - A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a blue line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child ?

A. EDTA

B. DMSA

C. BAL

D. Penicillamine

EDTA

5 - A drug A & B compared, all are true except____________?

A. 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent

B. 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious

C. 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious

D. Efficacy is not dose dependent

Efficacy is not dose dependent

6 - A patient on digoxin should not be given quindine because______________?

A. Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites

B. Displaces digoxin from its protein binding sites

C. Decrease the renal clearance of digoxin

D. Decreases the plasma potassium level

Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites

7 - A prodrug is____________?

A. The proto type member of a class of drugs

B. The oldest member of a class of drugs

C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction

An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

8 - A side effect of an antithyroid drug is______________?

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Obesity

C. Hypotension

D. Tremors

Hypothyroidism

9 - According to American society of Anesthetists, physical status scale Class III would be_____________?

A. A normal healthy individual

B. A patient with mild systemic disease

C. A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating

D. None of the above

A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating

10 - Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?

A. Trannic acid

B. Gelatin foam

C. Adrenaline

D. Vitamin-K

Vitamin-K

11 - All of the following are tocolytic except_______________?

A. Isoxsuprine

B. Natrexam

C. Atosiban

D. Ritodrine

Natrexam

12 - All of the following are true except____________?

A. A special application of dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia

B. Interferons have a role in immunology of cancer

C. Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy

D. Allopurinol is a derivative of 8-mercaptopurine

Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy

13 - All of the following penetrate the CSF except________________?

A. Dextrose

B. Dilantine

C. Diazepam

D. Dopamine

Dopamine

14 - All of the following statements regarding biovailability of a drug are true except______________?

A. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

B. Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration

C. Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption

D. Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption

15 - All the following increases drug metabolism by activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT___________?

A. Tetracycline

B. Cimetidine

C. Rifampicin

D. Phenobarbitone

Cimetidine

16 - Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A. previous exposure to the drug

B. Dosage of the drug received

C. Pharmacological action of the drug

D. Antigen antibody reaction

Dosage of the drug received

17 - American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?

A. Is healthy

B. With mild systemic disease

C. With severe systemic disease

D. None of the above

With mild systemic disease

18 - Blood spills in hospitals are cleaned by_______________?

A. Absolute alchohol

B. Quaternary ammonium compound

C. Sodium hypochlorite

D. Iodine compound

Sodium hypochlorite

19 - Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin is an example of_____________?

A. Indifference

B. Synergy

C. Antagonism

D. Bacterial symbiosis

Synergy

20 - Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t½ is 4 hrs______________?

A. 12 hrs

B. 20 hrs

C. 25 hrs

D. 30 hrs

20 hrs

21 - Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____________?

A. Lorazepam

B. Pirenzepine

C. Ranitidine

D. Chlorpheniramine

Chlorpheniramine

22 - Drug binds to activate the receptor is same fashion, which directly or indirectly brings effect, is_____________?

A. Inverse agonist

B. Antagonist

C. Agonist

D. Partial agonist

Agonist

23 - Drug efficacy refers to_________________?

A. Range of disease in which the drug beneficial

B. Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

C. The therapeutic does range of the drug

D. The therapeutic index of the drug

Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

24 - Drug injury may be caused by therapeutic drugs or______________?

A. Carcinogens

B. Allergens

C. Nontherapeutic agents

D. All of the above

Nontherapeutic agents

25 - Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

A. phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Corticosteroids

D. All of the above

All of the above

26 - Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one______________?

A. Morphine

B. Nitroglycerine

C. Propranolol

D. Salicylates

Salicylates

27 - Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

A. Are more common than first order kinetics

B. Decrease in concentration exponentially with time

C. Have a half – life independent of dose

D. Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Have a half – life independent of dose

28 - During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is______________?

A. Weight of the child

B. Age of child

C. Nature of the drug

D. Chronicity of pain

Weight of the child

29 - Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____________?

A. 0.84

B. 0.93

C. 0.805

D. 0.0475

0.93

30 - Filgrastin is used for treatment of_____________?

A. Anemia

B. Neutropenia

C. Malaria

D. Filariasis

Neutropenia

31 - Finasteride is a ?

A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

B. PDE inhibitor

C. Alpha blocker

D. Androgen receptor blocker

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

32 - Following drug which undergo most of its metabolism presystemically______________?

A. Salbutamol

B. Verapamil

C. Propranolol

D. Paracetamol

Propranolol

33 - For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is_____________?

A. Penicillamine

B. E.D.T.A

C. Desferrixamine

D. B.A.L

B.A.L

34 - Gastric secretion has been shown to be most effectively reduced with the use of___________?

A. H1 histamine receptor antagonist

B. H2 histamine receptor antagonist

C. Adrenal steroids

D. Anticholinergic

H2 histamine receptor antagonist

35 - H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?

A. Common cold

B. Systemic anaphylaxis

C. Motion sickness

D. Parkinsonism

Parkinsonism

36 - Hepatic first pass metabolism is important in____________?

A. Drugs given IM

B. Drugs taken orally

C. Drugs given IV

D. None of the above

Drugs taken orally

37 - I.V anesthesia is_________________?

A. Propofol

B. Sevoflurane

C. Flumazanil

D. Naloxane

Propofol

38 - Idiosyncracy is known as to have_____________?

A. Genetic component

B. Psychological component

C. Psysiological component

D. Nutritional component

Genetic component

39 - IF patient suffered from exaggerated effect of pharmacological effect____________?

A. Idosyncrasy

B. Toxicity

C. Side effect

D. None of the above

Toxicity

40 - Imatinib acts on______________?

A. Alpha TNF receptors

B. IL-2 receptors

C. Tyrosin Kinase receptors

D. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Tyrosin Kinase receptors

41 - Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?

A. Super sensitivity

B. Idiosyncrasy

C. Hyper sensitivity

D. Hyper acidity

Hyper sensitivity

42 - In cirrhoses patients, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except_____________?

A. Lorazepam

B. Theophylline

C. Paracetamol

D. Metronidazole

Lorazepam

43 - Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?

A. Anti-hypertensives

B. Anti-diabetics

C. Anticoagulants

D. Anti-fibrinolytics

Anticoagulants

44 - Km value indicates______________?

A. Purity of Enzyme

B. Physiological role

C. Half life enzymes drug complex

D. Affinity

Half life enzymes drug complex

45 - Loading dose depends on_____________?

A. Volume of distribution

B. Clearance

C. Rate of administration

D. Half life

Volume of distribution

46 - Majority of drugs are transported across the membrane by____________?

A. Passive diffusion

B. Active transport

C. Facilitated trasnsport

D. Filtration

Passive diffusion

47 - Mandibular sublaxation is associated with________________?

A. Prochlorperazine

B. Carbamezapine

C. Diphenhydramine

D. Ciprofloxacin

Prochlorperazine

48 - Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsuitism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use______________?

A. Hydrochlorthiazide

B. Amiloride

C. Spironolactone

D. Acetazolamide

Spironolactone

49 - Neuro adaptation to drug is same as______________?

A. Physical dependence

B. Psychological dependence

C. Addiction

D. Habituation

Physical dependence

50 - Nitrates are not used in______________?

A. CCF

B. Esophageal spasm

C. Renal colic

D. Cyanide poisoning

Renal colic

51 - Not true about penicillin G is______________?

A. Destroyed by gastric acid

B. Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci

C. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis

D. More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

52 - ovidone iodine is the choice of mouthrinse in cases associated AIDS because______________?

A. It is a topical antimicrobial

B. It is a topical anesthestic

C. Its ability to aid in blood coagulation

D. All of the above

It is a topical antimicrobial

53 - Patients tend to exhibit a greater than normal response drugs in each of the following conditions except_______________?

A. Congestive cardiac failure

B. Hepartic cirrhossis

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Hypolbuminaemia

Congestive cardiac failure

54 - Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be___________?

A. 48

B. 24

C. 12

D. 3

55 - Potassium permanganate is used for_______________?

A. Gargling

B. Dinisfect water in wells

C. Irrigating cavities

D. Cleaning surgical instruments

Irrigating cavities

56 - Progestin compound that does not alter lipid profile is______________?

A. Medroxyprogesterone

B. Norethindrone

C. Gestodene

D. Levonorgestrel

Gestodene

57 - Secretory immunoglobulin is_____________?

A. IgG

B. IgA

C. IgM

D. IgE

IgA

58 - Serum sickness is caused by all the following drugs except_____________?

A. Aspirin

B. Pencillins

C. Sulfonamides

D. Chloroquin

Chloroquin

59 - Side effect of antihistaminic is_______________?

A. Cough

B. Headache

C. Drowsiness

D. Vertigo

Drowsiness

60 - Sildenafil is inhibitor of_______________?

A. cAMP

B. cGMP

C. PDE-5

D. PGI2

PDE-5

61 - Teratogenicity is_______________?

A. Carcinoma forming tendency

B. Fetal malformation

C. Intolerance to a drug

D. Drug dependence

Fetal malformation

62 - Teratogenicity results when drugs are given during____________?

A. First trimester

B. Second trimester

C. Third trimester

D. Soon after birth

First trimester

63 - The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is_____________?

A. Ld50

B. Td50

C. Md50

D. Ed50

Ed50

64 - The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A. Scavanges free radicals

B. Enhances the production of free radicals

C. Promotes damage of DNA

D. Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Scavanges free radicals

65 - The drug which has an affinity for a receptor site and produces the intrinsic activity of the receptor cell or enzyme system is known as____________?

A. An agonist

B. A non competitive antagonist

C. A physiologic antagonist

D. A competitive antagonist

An agonist

66 - The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is______________?

A. Penicillin G

B. Clindamycin

C. Metronidazole

D. Doxycycline

Metronidazole

67 - The following statements about verapamil are true except_____________?

A. It does not produce reflex tachycardia

B. It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator

C. It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia

D. It can cause constipation

It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia

68 - The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT____________?

A. It is useful in emergencies

B. Aseptic precautions are required

C. Bioavailability is 100%

D. Suspensions can be administered

Suspensions can be administered

69 - The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

A. 0.5

B. 0.65

C. 0.7

D. 0.95

0.7

70 - The most common cause of antibiotic – related diarrhea is____________?

A. H.pylori

B. C.difficile

C. K.pneumoniae

D. Shigella

C.difficile

71 - The most common type of epilepsy in children is________________?

A. Grand mal epilepsy

B. Infantile spasm

C. Petit mal

D. None of the above

Petit mal

72 - The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include The following except_____________?

A. Hydolysis

B. Reduction

C. Oxidation

D. Conjugation

Conjugation

73 - The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

A. Morbidity index

B. Moratality index

C. Anesthetic ratio

D. Therapeutic index

Therapeutic index

74 - The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

A. 1 – 18 days

B. 19 – 55 days

C. 56 – 85 days

D. II trimester

19 – 55 days

75 - Therapetic index indicates____________?

A. Drug toxicty

B. Drug potency

C. Drug safety

D. Drug's Lethal effect

Drug safety

76 - Therapeutic index is____________?

A. LD 100/Ed100

B. ED 100/LD 100

C. LD 50/ED500

D. ED50/LD50

LD 50/ED500

77 - Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except_________________?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Disorders of coagulation

C. Laryngospasm

D. Extreme hyper-Kalemia

Disorders of coagulation

78 - Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT____________?

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethylene glycol

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Tetracycline

Ciprofloxacin

79 - Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT_______________?

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethylene glycol

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Tetracycline

Ciprofloxacin

80 - Untrue about vitamin D is_______________?

A. UV light helps in formation

B. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion is seen in renal failure

C. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalcitenol occurs in kidney

D. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is used in treatment of renal failure

25-hydroxycholecalciferol is used in treatment of renal failure

81 - Use of morphine is contraindicated in the following conditions except_______________?

A. Head injury

B. Acute myocardial infarcation

C. Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis

D. Bronchial asthma

Acute myocardial infarcation

82 - What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs_____________?

A. prevents or bypasses first pass effects

B. Easy to administer

C. Lipid soluble

D. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

prevents or bypasses first pass effects

83 - When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A. Side effect

B. Toxicity effect

C. Idiosyncratic effect

D. Drug on Drug effect

Idiosyncratic effect

84 - When allergic manifestations occur pursuant to use of antimicrobial agents, what of the following is seen____________?

A. Skin eruptions

B. Angioneurotic edema

C. Sialorrhea

D. Both A & B

Both A & B

85 - When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed as_____________?

A. Cumulation

B. Induction

C. Synergism

D. Antagonism

Synergism

86 - Which among the following anti-histamines, is Least likely to cause sedation_____________?

A. Promethazine

B. Diphenhydramine

C. Hydroxyzine

D. Loratidine

Loratidine

87 - Which among the following is a cell cycle specific anti-neoplastic drug ?

A. Cyclophosphamide

B. Doxorubicin

C. Methotrexate

D. Cisplatin

Methotrexate

88 - Which antisialagogue is contraindicated in glaucoma_____________?

A. Ephederine

B. Atropine

C. Propranolone

D. Morphine

Atropine

89 - Which drug is not acetylated ?

A. Metaclopramide

B. INH

C. Dapsone

D. Hydralazine

Metaclopramide

90 - Which drug is present in ledermix paste ?

A. Doxycycline

B. Demeclocyline

C. Minocycline

D. Tetracycline

Demeclocyline

91 - Which drugs had high first pass effect_____________?

A. Amiodarone

B. Phenytoin

C. Verapamil

D. Disorpyamide

Verapamil

92 - Which is a prodrug ?

A. Enalapril

B. clonidine

C. Salmeterol

D. Acetazolamide

Enalapril

93 - Which of the following can cause seizure ?

A. Tramadol

B. Isoniazid

C. Levocetrizine

D. Tacrolimus

Isoniazid

94 - Which of the following drugs cannot reduce the salivary secretions ?

A. Amitriptyline

B. Disopyrmide

C. Atenolol

D. Neostigmine

Neostigmine

95 - Which of the following drugs is used in the morning sickness_____________?

A. Hyoscine

B. Atropine

C. Adrenalin

D. Chlorpromazine

Hyoscine

96 - Which of the following drugs to not require a change in their dosage in patients with renal failure_______________?

A. Rifampicin

B. Isoniazid

C. Cefotaxime

D. Aminoglycoside

Isoniazid

97 - Which of the following histamine blockers has no effect on muscarinic receptors______________?

A. Diphenydramine

B. Promethazine

C. Terfenadine

D. Pyrilamine

Terfenadine

98 - Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?

A. Montelukast

B. Zileuton

C. Nedocromil

D. Misopristol

Montelukast

99 - Which of the following is a mismatch ?

A. Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant

B. Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant

C. Herbicide and earth materials – allergies

D. Acetaminophen – anti inflammatory

Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant

100 - Which of the following is not a potassium sparing diuretic______________?

A. Spironolactone

B. Bumetainde

C. Triamtrence

D. Amelioride

Bumetainde

101 - Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A. Increase in IL-1

B. Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils

C. Anti-inflammatory effect is increased

D. Inhibit phospholipase A2

Increase in IL-1

102 - Which of the following is not true for histamine ?

A. Causes arteriolar dialation

B. causes bronchodialtion

C. Causes pain when injected subcutaneously

D. Is released following injury and in certain allergic responses

causes bronchodialtion

103 - Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?

A. It causes excertion of Na & Cl

B. It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy

C. It is very potent

D. It causes metabolic alkalosis

It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy

104 - Which of the following is used in the prophylaxis of migraine ?

A. Carbamazepine

B. Topiramate

C. Ethosuxamide

D. Phenobarbitone

Topiramate

105 - Which of the following statements about Azoles is false ?

A. They are fungistatic

B. They are hepatotoxic

C. Resistance to the drug is common

D. They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

106 - Which statement is true about carbamazepine ?

A. Used in trigeminal neuralgia

B. Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor

C. Can cause megaloblastic anemia

D. It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

Used in trigeminal neuralgia

107 - Zero order kinetics is seen with_______________?

A. Phenytoin

B. Phenabarbtion

C. Erythromycin

D. Digoxin

Phenytoin

Pages

Subject Wise MCQs

Post Wise MCQs

Past Papers

Pages

Pharmacology Most Important MCQs

1 - 1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route______________?

2 - A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known a_____________?

3 - A child has phocomelia, this impliments his mother had taken which of the following medication during pregnancy______________?

4 - A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a blue line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child ?

5 - A drug A & B compared, all are true except____________?

6 - A patient on digoxin should not be given quindine because______________?

7 - A prodrug is____________?

8 - A side effect of an antithyroid drug is______________?

9 - According to American society of Anesthetists, physical status scale Class III would be_____________?

10 - Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?

11 - All of the following are tocolytic except_______________?

12 - All of the following are true except____________?

13 - All of the following penetrate the CSF except________________?

14 - All of the following statements regarding biovailability of a drug are true except______________?

15 - All the following increases drug metabolism by activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT___________?

16 - Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

17 - American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?

18 - Blood spills in hospitals are cleaned by_______________?

19 - Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin is an example of_____________?

20 - Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t½ is 4 hrs______________?

21 - Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____________?

22 - Drug binds to activate the receptor is same fashion, which directly or indirectly brings effect, is_____________?

23 - Drug efficacy refers to_________________?

24 - Drug injury may be caused by therapeutic drugs or______________?

25 - Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

26 - Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one______________?

27 - Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

28 - During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is______________?

29 - Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____________?

30 - Filgrastin is used for treatment of_____________?

31 - Finasteride is a ?

32 - Following drug which undergo most of its metabolism presystemically______________?

33 - For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is_____________?

34 - Gastric secretion has been shown to be most effectively reduced with the use of___________?

35 - H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?

36 - Hepatic first pass metabolism is important in____________?

37 - I.V anesthesia is_________________?

38 - Idiosyncracy is known as to have_____________?

39 - IF patient suffered from exaggerated effect of pharmacological effect____________?

40 - Imatinib acts on______________?

41 - Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?

42 - In cirrhoses patients, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except_____________?

43 - Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?

44 - Km value indicates______________?

45 - Loading dose depends on_____________?

46 - Majority of drugs are transported across the membrane by____________?

47 - Mandibular sublaxation is associated with________________?

48 - Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsuitism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use______________?

49 - Neuro adaptation to drug is same as______________?

50 - Nitrates are not used in______________?

51 - Not true about penicillin G is______________?

52 - ovidone iodine is the choice of mouthrinse in cases associated AIDS because______________?

53 - Patients tend to exhibit a greater than normal response drugs in each of the following conditions except_______________?

54 - Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be___________?

55 - Potassium permanganate is used for_______________?

56 - Progestin compound that does not alter lipid profile is______________?

57 - Secretory immunoglobulin is_____________?

58 - Serum sickness is caused by all the following drugs except_____________?

59 - Side effect of antihistaminic is_______________?

60 - Sildenafil is inhibitor of_______________?

61 - Teratogenicity is_______________?

62 - Teratogenicity results when drugs are given during____________?

63 - The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is_____________?

64 - The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

65 - The drug which has an affinity for a receptor site and produces the intrinsic activity of the receptor cell or enzyme system is known as____________?

66 - The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is______________?

67 - The following statements about verapamil are true except_____________?

68 - The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT____________?

69 - The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

70 - The most common cause of antibiotic – related diarrhea is____________?

71 - The most common type of epilepsy in children is________________?

72 - The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include The following except_____________?

73 - The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

74 - The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

75 - Therapetic index indicates____________?